Nokea
A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Portal hypertension.
- B. Sodium and water retention.
- C. Decreased serum albumin.
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
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A client with pneumonia is experiencing difficulty expectorating thick secretions. What intervention should the nurse implement to assist the client?
- A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy
- C. Encourage increased fluid intake
- D. Provide humidified oxygen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing difficulty expectorating thick secretions due to pneumonia is to encourage increased fluid intake. Increasing fluid intake helps to thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating pneumonia but does not directly address the issue of thick secretions. Chest physiotherapy (Choice B) may help in some cases, but increasing fluid intake is a more straightforward and effective intervention. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the problem of thick secretions.
What is the primary purpose of a chest tube in a client's care?
- A. To drain air and fluid from the pleural space
- B. To prevent infection in the thoracic cavity
- C. To assist with lung expansion
- D. To monitor intrathoracic pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To drain air and fluid from the pleural space. A chest tube is primarily used to remove accumulated air or fluid in the pleural space, preventing lung collapse or compromise of lung function. This intervention aims to re-expand the lung and enhance respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because preventing infection is not the primary purpose of a chest tube. Choice C is incorrect as lung expansion is a result of draining the pleural space, not the primary goal. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring intrathoracic pressure is not the main objective of a chest tube insertion.
After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a 1.2mL injection to a 4-year-old. Which is the best site to administer an IM injection?
- A. Vastus Lateralis
- B. Radial artery
- C. Dorsogluteal
- D. Rectus femoris
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Vastus Lateralis. The vastus lateralis site is recommended for IM injections in small children due to its large muscle mass, making it suitable for injections in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The radial artery is not a site for IM injections; it is a site for arterial puncture. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential risks, such as injury to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris is not typically used for IM injections in children, as other sites like the vastus lateralis are more commonly preferred.
The nurse is with a client when the healthcare provider explains that the biopsy classifies the results as a T1N0M0 tumor. What response should the nurse provide first?
- A. The letters represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis in cancer staging.
- B. The letters stand for tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis.
- C. Let me explain the cancer staging to you.
- D. Would you like further clarification on the tumor staging?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer as it accurately explains that the letters T, N, and M in cancer staging represent tumor size, node involvement, and metastasis, respectively. Understanding this staging system helps the client comprehend the extent and severity of the disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A has the correct information but is not the most precise response. Choice C is vague and does not directly address the client's need for clarification. Choice D offers further clarification without directly addressing the initial explanation provided by the healthcare provider.