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A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?
- A. Cushingoid appearance
- B. Alopecia
- C. Temporary or permanent sterility
- D. Pathologic fractures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine and nitrogen mustard commonly cause hair loss (alopecia), which can significantly impact body image. While a Cushingoid appearance can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, it is not typically associated with the chemotherapy regimen mentioned. Temporary or permanent sterility can result from chemotherapy, affecting fertility but not directly contributing to altered body image. Pathologic fractures are not commonly linked to Hodgkin's disease or its treatment, unlike alopecia which is a well-known side effect.
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Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?
- A. prednisone (Colisone)
- B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
- C. indomethacin (Indocin)
- D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.
Which of the following infant behaviors demonstrates the concept of object permanence?
- A. The infant cries when his mother leaves the room.
- B. The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped.
- C. The infant picks up another toy after the one he was playing with rolls under the couch.
- D. The infant participates in a game of patty-cake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Object permanence occurs when the infant learns that something or someone still exists even though they might not be able to see it or them. This typically develops between 9 and 10 months of age. The correct answer, 'The infant looks at the floor to find a toy that he was playing with and dropped,' demonstrates object permanence as the infant understands that the toy still exists even though it is temporarily out of sight. Choices A and C do not directly relate to object permanence as the behaviors described do not necessarily indicate an understanding of objects existing when out of sight. Choice D is incorrect as participating in a game of patty-cake does not involve demonstrating object permanence. Peek-a-boo is a more suitable example of a game that demonstrates object permanence, as the infant continues to look for the hidden face, understanding that it still exists even though temporarily unseen.
The client asked about the role of leptin in the body. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It increases food intake in clients, thereby promoting obesity.
- B. It assists in the regulation of steroids.
- C. It increases the total fat mass of people who are obese.
- D. It might decrease the total fat mass in the bodies of people who are obese.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Leptin is a protein hormone expressed in fat cells that regulates fat cell percentage in the body. It is associated with increased energy expenditure and decreased food intake through hypothalamic control. In obese individuals, there may be insensitivity or resistance to leptin's effects. Leptin influences other hormones like insulin and genetic factors related to fat regulation. Therefore, the correct response is that leptin might decrease total fat mass in obese individuals as it is involved in energy balance and fat regulation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because leptin does not increase food intake or promote obesity; it does not assist in the regulation of steroids, and it does not increase total fat mass in people who are obese.
What is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1, herpes simplex virus 2, and varicella-zoster virus?
- A. HIV.
- B. HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV.
- C. CMV
- D. Influenza A viruses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1), herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution is needed in renal impairment. Choice A, HIV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the drug of choice for HIV. Choice C, CMV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the preferred treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. Choice D, Influenza A viruses, is incorrect as acyclovir is not used to treat influenza viruses.
A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet count falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
- A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
- B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
- C. Implement reverse isolation.
- D. Avoid IM injections.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement reverse isolation. Reverse isolation is a protective measure used to protect patients from infections, not to affect the risk of hemorrhage. Testing all excreta for occult blood (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of internal bleeding. Using a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene (Choice B) is recommended to prevent gum bleeding. Avoiding IM injections (Choice D) is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding in a client with a low platelet count. Therefore, among the given options, implementing reverse isolation is the least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage.