A client appears upset about the IV catheter insertion but does not communicate it to the nurse after being informed about the prescribed IV fluids. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. Ignore the client's discomfort
- B. Reassure the client without addressing concerns
- C. Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?
- D. Proceed with the procedure
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to ask the client if there are any concerns about the procedure. By doing so, the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens up a dialogue to address any anxieties or misconceptions. Option A is incorrect as ignoring the client's discomfort can lead to increased anxiety and potential harm. Option B is not ideal as reassuring the client without addressing specific concerns may not alleviate the client's distress. Option D is incorrect because proceeding with the procedure without addressing the client's unspoken concerns can further escalate the client's distress.
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A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?
- A. Fluid volume deficit
- B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
- C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
- D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.
A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Measure the client's urine output.
- B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
In an emergency department, a nurse is assessing a client who reports right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- B. Administer an antiemetic.
- C. Offer pain medication.
- D. Palpate the abdomen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to auscultate bowel sounds. This step is crucial to assess bowel activity before proceeding with palpation or administering medications. Assessing bowel sounds can provide valuable information about bowel motility and potential obstructions. Administering an antiemetic or offering pain medication may be necessary but should come after assessing bowel sounds to ensure appropriate treatment. Palpating the abdomen should be avoided initially to prevent potential discomfort or complications, especially if there is suspected abdominal pathology.
The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
The client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place for decompression. What action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the NG tube?
- A. Irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift.
- B. Check the tube placement by auscultation.
- C. Secure the tube to the client's gown.
- D. Flush the tube with 5 mL of sterile water before and after medication administration.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To maintain patency of the NG tube, it is essential to irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for effective decompression. Checking tube placement by auscultation (Choice B) is important for verifying correct placement but does not directly impact patency. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice C) is crucial for safety and comfort but is not directly related to maintaining patency. Flushing the tube with sterile water before and after medication administration (Choice D) is not the recommended method for maintaining patency of an NG tube, as normal saline is the appropriate solution for this purpose.