Nokea
A client asks about the benefits of male condoms. Which of the following would the nurse include?
- A. They are 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
- B. They provide some protection against STIs.
- C. They can be reused if undamaged.
- D. They require a prescription.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Male condoms provide some protection against STIs, which is a key benefit. They are not 100% effective, cannot be reused, and do not require a prescription.
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A multiparous client who has a neonate diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn asks the nurse why the neonate has developed this problem. Which of the following responses by the nurse should be most appropriate?
- A. You are Rh-positive and the neonate's father is Rh-negative.'
- B. You and the neonate's father are both Rh-negative.'
- C. You are Rh-negative and the neonate's father is Rh-positive.'
- D. The fetus is Rh-negative and you are Rh-positive.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to maternal antibody production against fetal red blood cells.
A nurse is discussing the copper IUD with a client. Which of the following side effects should the nurse mention?
- A. Decreased menstrual bleeding.
- B. Increased menstrual bleeding and cramping.
- C. Permanent infertility.
- D. Guaranteed regular periods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The copper IUD may increase menstrual bleeding and cramping, especially initially. It does not decrease bleeding, cause permanent infertility, or guarantee regular periods.
A client is considering the withdrawal method. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding?
- A. It requires careful timing and control.
- B. It is more effective than oral contraceptives.
- C. It provides protection against STIs.
- D. It is 100% effective with perfect use.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The withdrawal method requires careful timing and control to be effective. It is less effective than oral contraceptives, does not protect against STIs, and is not 100% effective, even with perfect use.
A multigravid client is admitted at 4-cm dilation and requesting pain medication. The nurse gives the client Nubain 15 mg and Phenergan 25 mg slow I.V. push. Within 5 minutes, the client tells the nurse she feels like she needs to have a bowel movement. The nurse should first:
- A. Have naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) available in the delivery room.
- B. Perform a vaginal examination to determine dilation, effacement, and station.
- C. Prepare for delivery.
- D. Document the client's relief due to pain medication.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden urge to have a bowel movement in labor often indicates rapid progression to full dilation or fetal descent. A vaginal examination confirms dilation and station to guide next steps (e.g., preparing for delivery). Naloxone, preparation, or documentation are premature without assessment.
After reinforcing the danger signs to report with a gravida 2 client at 32 weeks' gestation with an elevated blood pressure, which client statements would demonstrate her understanding of when to call the physician's office? Select all that apply.
- A. "If I get up in the morning and feel dizzy, even if the dizziness goes away."
- B. "If I see any bleeding, even if I have no pain."
- C. "If I have a pounding headache that doesn't go away."
- D. "If I notice the veins in my legs getting bigger."
- E. "If the leg cramps at night are waking me up."
- F. "If the baby seems to be more active than usual."
Correct Answer: A,B,C,F
Rationale: These symptoms could indicate complications needing medical attention.