Nokea
A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding. The tentative diagnosis is inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- B. Offer option to view products of conception
- C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
- D. Maintain the client on bed rest
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Offering the client the option to view products of conception after an inevitable abortion can provide closure and support the grieving process. It allows the client to have a visual confirmation of the pregnancy loss, which can aid in emotional healing. Administering oxygen is not a priority in this scenario as there is no indication of respiratory distress. Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods is not directly related to managing an inevitable abortion. Bed rest may be recommended, but offering the option to view products of conception is a more appropriate intervention at this time.
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A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
- A. Hydrops fetalis
- B. Hypobilirubinemia
- C. Biliary atresia
- D. Transient clotting difficulties
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?
- A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned.'
- B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
- C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
- D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.
During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Report of headache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.
A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
- B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
- C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
- D. Have the client ambulate.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.