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A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24 hr.
- B. Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL
- C. Hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL
- D. Platelet count of 60,000/mm3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.
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What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?
- A. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions
- B. Re-evaluating the need for medication
- C. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction
- D. Assisting her to maintain control
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.
Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- C. Hemophilia
- D. Huntington's disease
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.
When children who are reared by adoptive parents are nonetheless more similar to their natural parents in a trait, it can be concluded that:
- A. the genetic characteristics of the children change over time.
- B. heredity is solely responsible for how a child grows.
- C. the environment is solely responsible for the development of those characteristics.
- D. genetics play a role in the development of those characteristics.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When children exhibit traits that are more similar to their biological parents than their adoptive parents, it indicates a strong genetic influence on those traits. This similarity suggests that genetics play a significant role in the development of the observed characteristics. Choice A is incorrect because genetic characteristics do not change over time in this context. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that heredity is the only factor, disregarding the impact of the environment. Choice C is also incorrect as it suggests that only the environment influences trait development, overlooking the genetic contribution.
A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.
Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?
- A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman's first pregnancy.
- B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
- C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
- D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.