Nokea
A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Nifedipine
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Misoprostol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV diltiazem for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a contraindication to the administration of diltiazem?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. History of diuretic use
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem can cause further lowering of blood pressure, so it should not be administered if the client is already hypotensive. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial before giving diltiazem. Choice B, tachycardia, is not a contraindication for diltiazem use; in fact, diltiazem is used to slow down the heart rate. Choice C, decreased level of consciousness, may indicate other issues but is not a direct contraindication for diltiazem. Choice D, history of diuretic use, is not a contraindication by itself; however, caution should be exercised when diltiazem is given with diuretics due to potential interactions.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis with a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Reduces blood pressure
- B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
- C. Promotes RBC production
- D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease who may have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: epoetin alfa does not directly reduce blood pressure, inhibit clotting of the fistula, or stimulate growth of neutrophils.
A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.5 mL
- C. 1.0 mL
- D. 1.5 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To determine the volume of prochlorperazine to administer, divide the prescribed dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (5 mg/mL). This calculation results in 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL to deliver the correct dose. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage. Choices C (1.0 mL) and D (1.5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated volume needed for the dose.
A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin. The client reports nausea and refuses to eat breakfast. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Encourage the client to eat the toast on the breakfast tray
- B. Administer an antiemetic
- C. Inform the client's provider
- D. Check the client's apical pulse
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's apical pulse first. Nausea can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, and assessing the client's heart rate is crucial in this situation. Administering an antiemetic or encouraging the client to eat should come after ensuring the client's safety. While informing the provider is important, the immediate concern is to assess for potential digoxin toxicity by checking the client's apical pulse.
A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
- A. 19 gtt/min
- B. 20 gtt/min
- C. 21 gtt/min
- D. 22 gtt/min
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 1000 mL / 480 minutes 10 gtt/mL = 20.83, rounded to 21 gtt/min. This ensures proper IV fluid administration over the prescribed time. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects the accurate calculation based on the given parameters. Choice A is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the infusion rate. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the precise calculation required. Choice D is incorrect as it deviates from the correct calculation.