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A client at 39-weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. The client's cervix is dilated 6 cm, 90% effaced, and the fetus is at 0 station. The client's membranes rupture spontaneously, and the fluid is clear. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Monitor the fetal heart rate pattern.
- B. Perform a vaginal examination.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate.
- D. Administer pain medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the fetal heart rate pattern after membrane rupture is essential to detect any changes in fetal status.
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A 42-week gestational client is receiving an intravenous infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. The nurse should discontinue the oxytocin infusion for which pattern of contractions?
- A. Transition labor with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds each
- B. Early labor with contractions every 5 minutes, lasting 40 seconds each
- C. Active labor with contractions every 31 minutes, lasting 60 seconds each
- D. Active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, lasting 70 to 80 seconds each
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contractions pattern (A) describes hyperstimulation and an inadequate resting time between contractions to allow for placental perfusion. The oxytocin infusion should be discontinued.
Regarding advanced roles of nursing, which statement related to clinical practice is the most accurate?
- A. Family nurse practitioners (FNPs) can assist with childbirth care in the hospital setting.
- B. Clinical nurse specialists (CNSs) provide primary care to obstetric patients.
- C. Neonatal nurse practitioners provide emergency care in the postbirth setting to high-risk infants.
- D. A certified nurse midwife (CNM) is not considered to be an advanced practice nurse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Neonatal NPs provide specialized care for high-risk neonates in the birth room and NICU as needed.
A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?
- A. 3-1-2-0-3
- B. 4-1-2-0-3
- C. 2-1-2-1-2
- D. 3-1-1-0-3
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: (D) describes the correct GTPAL. The client has been pregnant 3 times including the current pregnancy (G-3). She had one full-term infant (T-1). She also had a preterm (P-1) twin pregnancy (a multifetal gestation is considered one birth when calculating parity). There were no abortions (A-0), so this client has a total of 3 living children.
A pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III is prescribed complete bedrest. The client asks the nurse, 'Why must I stay in bed all the time?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
- B. You have a small opening in your heart and complete bedrest will help it get bigger.
- C. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can make sure that will happen.
- D. Labor is difficult, and you need to save your energy so you will be strong enough then.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue, which is crucial for clients with mitral stenosis.
The nurse is caring for a woman with a previously diagnosed heart disease who is in the second stage of labor. Which assessment findings are of greatest concern?
- A. Edema, basilar rales, and an irregular pulse.
- B. Increased urinary output, and tachycardia.
- C. Dyspnea, bradycardia, and hypertension.
- D. Regular heart rate, and hypertension.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Edema, basilar rales, and an irregular pulse indicate potential cardiac decompensation, which is of greatest concern in a woman with heart disease during labor.