A client begins a regimen of chemotherapy. Her platelet counts falls to 98,000. Which action is least likely to increase the risk of hemorrhage?
- A. Test all excreta for occult blood.
- B. Use a soft toothbrush or foam cleaner for oral hygiene.
- C. Implement reverse isolation.
- D. Avoid IM injections.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reverse isolation does not affect the risk of hemorrhage.
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When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:
- A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance
- B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection
- C. Therapy should be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity
- D. Therapy should be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV mutates very rapidly, and any interruption of therapy can allow viral resistance to emerge - even taking a dose late. Choice B is incorrect because, when the virus is kept in check with anti-retrovirals, the client's own immune system is able to keep opportunistic infections at bay. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If the client develops toxicity, another anti-retroviral drug might be prescribed.
When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?
- A. warm, dry skin
- B. bradycardia
- C. tachycardia
- D. eupnea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The cardinal signs of respiratory problems and hypoxia are restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Bradycardia might occur much later in the process when the condition is severe. Eupnea is normal respirations in rate and depth.
Which of the following observations is most important when assessing a client's breathing?
- A. presence of breathing and pulse rate
- B. breathing pattern and adequacy of breathing
- C. presence of breathing and adequacy of breathing
- D. patient position and adequacy of breathing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ensuring the presence and adequacy of breathing is critical, as adequate oxygenation is essential for life. Pulse rate and position are secondary considerations.
A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:
- A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.
- B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.
- C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.
- D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Goals of diet therapy are aimed at decreasing weight and increasing activity to healthy levels based on a client's BMI, activity status, and energy requirements.
Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:
- A. inspection for visible pulsation.
- B. palpation of thrill.
- C. percussion for dullness.
- D. auscultation of blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thrill should be present. The client should be taught to check this daily at home. Pulsation is not typically visible. Percussion gives no information about the patency of a fistula. Blood pressure is not auscultated in a limb with an AVF. Auscultation of the AVF, for a bruit, is part of an assessment for patency.
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