Nokea
A client complaining of frequency, urgency, and burning on urination is seen by her health care practitioner. Which of the following factors in the client's history places her at risk for these complaints?
- A. The client urinates immediately after every sexual encounter.
- B. The client uses the diaphragm as a family planning method.
- C. The client wipes from front to back after every toileting.
- D. The client changes her peripads every two hours during her menses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The use of a diaphragm can increase the risk of urinary tract infections due to pressure on the urethra.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is teaching a woman how to do the pelvic tilt exercise. In the teaching session, which of the following should the nurse tell the woman to do?
- A. Stand with the back of her heels and shoulders touching a wall.
- B. Bend laterally back and forth from one side to the other.
- C. Move so that her back alternately is concave and convex.
- D. Lie flat on her back and move her hips from side to side.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic tilt exercises involve alternating the back between concave and convex positions to strengthen the lower back and abdominal muscles.
A 32-week-gravid client presents in the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and scant dark red bleeding. The nurse should assess this client for which of the following?
- A. Signs of pulmonary edema.
- B. Enlarging abdominal girth measurements.
- C. Hyporeflexia and confusion.
- D. Signs of diabetic coma and ketosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe abdominal pain, rigidity, and dark red bleeding could indicate placental abruption, which may cause enlarging abdominal girth due to internal bleeding.
Which laboratory is important to know when a client is having an amniocentesis?
- A. Blood type
- B. CBC
- C. Rh
- D. PT and PTT
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Rh factor is crucial to know to prevent Rh incompatibility issues during pregnancy.
2. Amniocentesis can pose a risk for Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers.
3. Knowing the Rh status helps determine if Rhogam (anti-D) is needed after amniocentesis.
4. Blood type (A) and CBC (B) are important but not directly relevant to amniocentesis.
5. PT and PTT (D) are coagulation tests, typically not required for routine amniocentesis.
A patient who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily has a positive pregnancy test. The nurse will explain that smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which condition?
- A. Congenital anomalies
- B. Death before or after birth
- C. Neonatal hypoglycemia
- D. Neonatal withdrawal syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Death before or after birth. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of fetal death, both before and after birth, due to the harmful effects of nicotine and other toxins on the developing fetus. Smoking can lead to complications such as placental abruption, preterm birth, low birth weight, and stillbirth.
A: Congenital anomalies - While smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of certain birth defects, the primary concern related to smoking is not congenital anomalies.
C: Neonatal hypoglycemia - Smoking during pregnancy is not directly linked to neonatal hypoglycemia, which is usually related to maternal diabetes or other factors.
D: Neonatal withdrawal syndrome - Although smoking during pregnancy can lead to nicotine exposure in the fetus, resulting in withdrawal symptoms after birth, the immediate risk of death is a more critical concern associated with smoking during pregnancy.
An older adult patient has extensive wound care needs after discharge from the hospital. Which facility should the nurse discuss with the patient?
- A. Hospice
- B. Respite care
- C. Assisted living
- D. Skilled nursing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An intermediate care or skilled nursing facility offers skilled care from a licensed nursing staff.