A client diagnosed with angina has been prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate. Which instruction should the practical nurse reinforce in this client's teaching?
- A. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
- B. Avoid getting up quickly. Always rise slowly.
- C. Take the medication with or without food.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the practical nurse (PN) should reinforce with a client prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is to avoid getting up quickly and to rise slowly. Nitrates can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. By rising slowly, the client can prevent the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension and its associated symptoms.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of buspirone is drowsiness. It is important for clients to be informed about this side effect, as it can affect their ability to perform tasks that require full alertness, such as driving. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness until they know how the medication affects them.
An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?
- A. Experiences dry mouth.
- B. Experiences dizziness.
- C. Develops a sore throat.
- D. Develops gingival hyperplasia.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications.
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
- A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
- B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
- C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
- D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?
- A. Difficulty starting urination
- B. Nosebleeds
- C. Muscle cramps
- D. Visual disturbances
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
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