Nokea
A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
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Peritonitis is a condition that can result in serious complications. Identify one of the complications.
- A. Increased peristalsis
- B. Dizziness and malaise
- C. Sepsis and shock
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Peritonitis can lead to severe complications such as sepsis and shock due to the infection spreading in the abdominal cavity. Sepsis is a systemic inflammatory response to infection, and shock is a life-threatening condition where the body's organs are not receiving enough blood flow. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased peristalsis is not a typical complication of peritonitis; dizziness and malaise, as well as nausea and vomiting, are symptoms rather than complications of the condition.
What should a nurse include in patient teaching for a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis?
- A. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness in treating endometriosis.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone can be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Medroxyprogesterone should be discontinued if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When teaching a patient prescribed medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for endometriosis, the nurse should emphasize the importance of taking the medication at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent hormone levels and ensures the effectiveness of the treatment. Option A is correct because it addresses this key point. Option B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken consistently but not necessarily with food. Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider is not advisable. Option D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily, not weekly, for the treatment of endometriosis.
What is the distinguishing feature of Hodgkin disease noted on histologic exam?
- A. Reed-Sternberg cells
- B. Red-stained cells
- C. Human Papillomavirus
- D. B-cells and T-cells
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reed-Sternberg cells. Reed-Sternberg cells are large, abnormal B-cells that are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma. These cells are identified on histologic examination of lymph node biopsies from patients with Hodgkin disease. Choice B, 'Red-stained cells,' is vague and does not describe a specific feature of Hodgkin disease. Choice C, 'Human Papillomavirus,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is not caused by HPV. Choice D, 'B-cells and T-cells,' is incorrect as Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B-cells.
A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?
- A. They improve treatment adherence.
- B. They reduce the duration of illness.
- C. They exhibit synergistic antiviral effects.
- D. They prevent opportunistic infections.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.
During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, which type of cells arrive first and in great numbers?
- A. Basophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Neutrophils
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the cellular stage of acute inflammation, neutrophils are the first responders. Neutrophils arrive at the site of injury in large numbers to combat pathogens and remove debris. Basophils and lymphocytes are also involved in the inflammatory response, but they are not the first to arrive. Platelets play a role in hemostasis and blood clotting, rather than being the primary cells involved in the initial inflammatory response.