Nokea
A client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is at 36 weeks' gestation. The client has had weekly reactive nonstress tests for the last 3 weeks. This week, the nonstress test was nonreactive after 40 minutes. Based on these results, the nurse should prepare the client for which intervention?
- A. A contraction stress test
- B. Immediate induction of labor
- C. Hospitalization with continuous fetal monitoring
- D. A return appointment in 2 days to repeat the nonstress test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A nonreactive nonstress test after 40 minutes indicates that the fetus did not show the expected heart rate accelerations, which may suggest fetal compromise, particularly in a high-risk pregnancy such as one with diabetes mellitus. The next step is typically a contraction stress test to further assess fetal well-being by evaluating the fetal heart rate response to uterine contractions. Immediate induction or hospitalization may be premature without further evaluation, and repeating the nonstress test in 2 days delays necessary assessment.
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A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of rheumatic fever. The nurse reviews the blood laboratory findings, knowing that which finding will confirm the likelihood of this disorder?
- A. Increased leukocyte count
- B. Decreased hemoglobin count
- C. Increased antistreptolysin-O (ASO titer)
- D. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Children suspected of having rheumatic fever are tested for streptococcal antibodies. The most reliable and best standardized test to confirm the diagnosis is the ASO titer. An elevated level indicates the presence of rheumatic fever. The remaining options are unrelated to diagnosing rheumatic fever. Additionally, an increased leukocyte count indicates the presence of infection but is not specific in confirming a particular diagnosis.
The nurse is monitoring a client diagnosed with a ruptured appendix for signs of peritonitis. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? Select all that apply.
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Distended abdomen
- C. Subnormal temperature
- D. Rigid, boardlike abdomen
- E. Diminished bowel sounds
- F. Inability to pass flatus or feces
Correct Answer: B,D,E,F
Rationale: Peritonitis is an acute inflammation of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, the endothelial lining of the abdominal cavity. Clinical manifestations include distended abdomen; a rigid, boardlike abdomen; diminished bowel sounds; inability to pass flatus or feces; abdominal pain (localized, poorly localized, or referred to the shoulder or thorax); anorexia, nausea, and vomiting; rebound tenderness in the abdomen; high fever; tachycardia; dehydration from the high fever; decreased urinary output; hiccups; and possible compromise in respiratory status.
The nurse, while caring for a hospitalized infant being monitored for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), notes that the anterior fontanel bulges when the infant cries. Based on this assessment finding, which conclusion should the nurse draw?
- A. That no action is required.
- B. The head of the bed needs to be lowered.
- C. The infant needs to be placed on NPO status.
- D. The primary health care provider should be notified immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A bulging anterior fontanel in an infant when crying is a normal finding, as crying increases intracranial pressure temporarily. This does not indicate a pathological condition requiring immediate intervention. Lowering the head of the bed or placing the infant on NPO status is not warranted, and notifying the primary health care provider is unnecessary unless other signs of increased ICP, such as persistent bulging at rest, irritability, or lethargy, are present.
A client has had a nasointestinal (NI) tube in place for 24 hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the tube is properly located in the intestine?
- A. Bowel sounds are absent.
- B. The client denies being nauseous.
- C. Aspirate from the tube has a pH of 7.
- D. The abdominal x-ray indicates that the end of the tube is above the pylorus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nasogastric (NG) or NI tube is used to decompress the intestine and correct a bowel obstruction. Nausea should subside as decompression is accomplished. The pH of the gastric fluid is acidic, and the pH of the intestinal fluid is alkaline (7 or higher). Although bowel sounds will be abnormal in the presence of obstruction, the presence or absence of bowel sounds is not associated with the location of the tube. The end of the tube should be located in the intestine (below the pylorus). Location of the tube can also be determined by radiographs.
A primary health care provider prescribes acetaminophen liquid 450 mg orally every 4 hours PRN for pain. The medication label reads 160 mg/5 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters (mL) to administer one dose? Fill in the blank and record your answer to the nearest whole number.
Correct Answer: 14 mL
Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication dosages. Formula: Desired × Volume / Available = mL per dose. 450 mg × 5 mL / 160 mg = 14 mL.