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A client diagnosed with heart failure and secondary hyperaldosteronism is started on spironolactone to manage this disorder. The nurse informs the client that the need for dosage adjustment may be necessary if which medication is also being taken?
- A. Alprazolam
- B. Warfarin sodium
- C. Potassium chloride
- D. Verapamil hydrochloride
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-retaining diuretic. If the client is also taking potassium chloride or another potassium supplement, the risk for hyperkalemia exists. Potassium doses need to be adjusted while the client is taking this medication. A dosage adjustment would not be necessary if the client was taking alprazolam, warfarin sodium, or verapamil hydrochloride.
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Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?
- A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
- B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
- C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
- D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.
A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an indwelling catheter in a female client. Which of the following positions of the client is most appropriate for this procedure?
- A. Lithotomy position
- B. Prone position
- C. Dorsal recumbent position
- D. High Fowler's position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When preparing to insert an indwelling catheter for a female client, the most appropriate position is the dorsal recumbent position. In this position, the client lies on their back with knees bent. This position allows for easy access to the urethral area for catheter insertion. The lithotomy position, with legs elevated and spread apart, is more invasive and typically used for gynecological exams. The prone position, lying face down, is not suitable for catheter insertion. High Fowler's position, sitting upright at a 90-degree angle, is not ideal for catheter insertion as it does not provide proper access to the perineal area.
Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
A client diagnosed with nephrolithiasis arrives at the clinic for a follow-up visit. The laboratory analysis of the stone that the client passed 1 week ago indicates that the stone is composed of calcium oxalate. On the basis of this analysis, the nurse should tell the client that it is best to avoid which food to minimize the risk of recurrence?
- A. Pasta
- B. Lentils
- C. Lettuce
- D. Spinach
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Many kidney stones are composed of calcium oxalate. Foods that raise urinary oxalate excretion and predispose to stone formation include spinach, rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, almonds, cashews, rhubarb, and tea. Pasta, lentils, and lettuce are not high in oxalates and are generally safe for clients with calcium oxalate stones.
A client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) gets recurrent Candida infections of the mouth (thrush). The nurse has given the client instructions to minimize the occurrence of thrush and determines that the client understands the instructions if which statement is made by the client?
- A. I should use a mouthwash at least once a week.
- B. I should use warm saline or water to rinse my mouth.
- C. I should brush my teeth and rinse my mouth once a day.
- D. Increasing the amount of red meat in my diet will keep this from recurring.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To minimize the occurrence of oral thrush in a client with AIDS, maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Rinsing the mouth with warm saline or water helps keep the oral cavity clean and reduces the risk of Candida overgrowth. Using mouthwash once a week is insufficient, and brushing only once a day does not provide adequate oral hygiene. Increasing red meat intake does not directly affect thrush prevention, as dietary changes unrelated to sugar or carbohydrate reduction have little impact on Candida infections.