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A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
- B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
- C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sitting with the client and offering support without demanding participation is crucial in building trust and rapport. This approach respects the client's autonomy and allows them to feel supported without pressure. It also creates a safe space for the client to open up when they are ready.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Offering high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals does not address the core issue of the client's refusal to participate in therapy.
B: Asking the client why they are not participating in therapy may come off as confrontational and could further discourage them from opening up.
D: Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness may be overwhelming for them at this stage and could lead to resistance.
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A 38-year-old male client collapsed at his outside construction job in Texas in July. His admitting vital signs to ICU are, BP 82/70, heart rate 140 beats/minute, urine output 10 ml/hr, skin cool to the touch. Pulmonary artery (PA) pressures are, PAWP 1, PAP 8/2, RAP -1, SVR 1600. What nursing action has the highest priority?
- A. Apply a hypothermia unit to stabilize core temperature.
- B. Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr.
- C. Call the hospital chaplain to counsel the family.
- D. Draw blood cultures x3 to detect infection.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase the client's IV fluid rate to 200 ml/hr. The client's vital signs indicate hypotension, tachycardia, decreased urine output, and cool skin, suggesting hypovolemic shock. Increasing IV fluid rate will help to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion to vital organs. This is the highest priority as it addresses the immediate physiological need for circulatory support.
Choice A is incorrect because hypothermia is not indicated based on the client's presentation. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the client's urgent physiological needs. Choice D is incorrect as drawing blood cultures, while important, is not the most immediate priority in this situation.
The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
- B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
- C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
- D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate. The client is showing signs of fluid overload, indicated by tachypnea and bounding pulse. By decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate, the nurse can prevent further fluid overload while maintaining IV access. Discontinuing the IV and applying pressure (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a specific issue with the IV site. Increasing the rate of the current IV solution (choice C) would worsen the fluid overload. Changing the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline (choice D) at the same rate may not effectively address the fluid overload concern.
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Tardive dyskinesia.
- B. Orthostatic hypotension.
- C. Photosensitivity.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic known to cause extrapyramidal side effects, including tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by involuntary repetitive movements of the face and body. This side effect is a serious concern due to its potential to be irreversible. Monitoring for tardive dyskinesia is crucial in clients taking haloperidol to detect and manage symptoms promptly.
Explanation for incorrect choices:
B: Orthostatic hypotension - This side effect is more commonly associated with other antipsychotic medications, particularly second-generation ones.
C: Photosensitivity - Haloperidol does not typically cause photosensitivity as a side effect.
D: Hyperglycemia - While some antipsychotic medications may lead to metabolic side effects like hyperglycemia, haloperidol is not typically associated with this specific side effect.
A client who delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago is complaining of a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 110/70, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/minute, heart rate is 74 beats/minute, and temperature is 98.6º F. The client's fundus is firm and one fingerbreadth above the umbilicus. What action should the healthcare team implement first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the assessment findings.
- B. Determine if the client received anesthesia during delivery.
- C. Assign a licensed nurse to reassess the client's vital signs.
- D. Obtain a STAT hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client delivered a 7-pound infant 12 hours ago and is now experiencing a severe headache, which could indicate postpartum preeclampsia. Checking if the client received anesthesia during delivery is crucial as certain types of anesthesia can increase the risk of postpartum preeclampsia. This step is important to determine if anesthesia is a contributing factor to the client's symptoms.
Option A is incorrect because immediate action is needed to address the client's symptoms related to anesthesia. Option C is incorrect as reassessing vital signs alone may not provide information specific to the client's headache. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a hemoglobin and hematocrit would not directly address the client's headache or potential anesthesia-related issues.