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A client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis is experiencing prolonged periods of weakness, and the primary health care provider prescribes an edrophonium test, also known as a Tensilon test. A test dose is administered and the client becomes weaker. How should the nurse interpret these results?
- A. Myasthenic crisis is present.
- B. Cholinergic crisis is present.
- C. This result is a normal finding.
- D. This result is a positive finding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An edrophonium test may be performed to determine whether increasing weakness in a client with previously diagnosed myasthenic is a result of cholinergic crisis (overmedication) with anticholinesterase medications or myasthenic crisis (undermedication). Worsening of the symptoms after the test dose of medication is administered indicates a cholinergic crisis.
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The nurse has a prescription to ambulate a client with a nephrostomy tube four times a day. The nurse determines that the safest way to ambulate the client while maintaining the integrity of the nephrostomy tube is to implement which intervention?
- A. Change the drainage bag to a leg collection bag.
- B. Tie the drainage bag to the client's waist while ambulating.
- C. Use a walker to hang the drainage bag from while ambulating.
- D. Tell the client to hold the drainage bag higher than the level of the bladder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The safest approach to protect the integrity and safety of the nephrostomy tube with a mobile client is to attach the tube to a leg collection bag. This allows for greater freedom of movement, while preventing accidental disconnection or dislodgment. The drainage bag is kept below the level of the bladder. Option 3 presents the risk of tension or pulling on the nephrostomy tube by the client during ambulation.
A client is intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation. The primary health care provider has added 7 cm of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the client's ventilator settings. The nurse should assess for which expected but adverse effect of PEEP?
- A. Decreased peak pressure on the ventilator
- B. Increased rectal temperature from 98°F to 100°F
- C. Decreased heart rate from 78 to 64 beats per minute
- D. Systolic blood pressure decrease from 122 to 98 mm Hg
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP improves oxygenation by enhancing gas exchange and preventing atelectasis. PEEP leads to increased intrathoracic pressure, which in turn leads to decreased cardiac output. This is manifested in the client by decreased systolic blood pressure and increased pulse (compensatory). Peak pressures on the ventilator should not be affected, although the pressure at the end of expiration remains positive at the level set for the PEEP. Fever indicates respiratory infection or infection from another source.
The nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome as a result of a severely fractured arm. When the client asks why this happens, how should the nurse respond?
- A. A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area.
- B. An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion through the compartment.
- C. Bleeding and swelling cause increased pressure in an area that cannot expand.
- D. The fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Compartment syndrome is caused by bleeding and swelling within a compartment, which is lined by fascia that does not expand. The bleeding and swelling place pressure on the nerves, muscles, and blood vessels in the compartment, triggering the symptoms. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect statements.
The nurse suspects that an air embolism has occurred when the client's central venous catheter disconnects from the intravenous (IV) tubing. The nurse immediately places the client on her or his left side in which position?
- A. High Fowler's
- B. Trendelenburg's
- C. Lateral recumbent
- D. Reverse Trendelenburg's
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If the client develops an air embolism, the immediate action is to place the client in Trendelenburg's position on the left side. This position raises the client's feet higher than the head and traps any air in the right atrium. If necessary, the air can then be directly removed by intracardiac aspiration.
An adult client has undergone a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. After reviewing the results of the analysis, the nurse recognizes that the CSF is normal when which element is negative?
- A. Protein
- B. Glucose
- C. Red blood cells
- D. White blood cells
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The adult with a normal CSF has no red blood cells in the CSF. Protein (15-45 mg/dL [0.15-0.45 g/L]) and glucose (50-75 mg/dL [2.8-4.2 mmol/L]) are normally present in CSF. The client may have small levels of white blood cells (0-5 cells/mcL [0-5 × 10^6/L]).