Nokea
A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Headaches that will subside in a few weeks
- B. Transient mild anxiety
- C. Insomnia
- D. Torticollis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.
You may also like to solve these questions
A male employee who is assessed weekly in the employee clinic for blood pressure because of a history of hypertension tells the nurse that he is so upset with one of his co-workers that he would like to shoot him. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Determine if the client has a weapon available for use.
- B. Inform the health care provider of the threat to harm a co-worker.
- C. Notify security of the client's intention to harm a co-worker.
- D. Have the employee escorted to a mental health facility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
- B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
- C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
- D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
- C. Restrict the client's access to the locks.
- D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can work towards understanding and managing their compulsions. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to continue the behavior does not address the root cause or help modify the behavior. Choice C is inappropriate as restricting access to locks can increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Choice D of scheduling specific times for checking locks does not address the underlying psychological issues driving the behavior.
A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
- B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
- C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
- D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.
A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
- B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
- C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.