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A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.
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An elderly male client reports to the clinic nurse that he is experiencing increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. He reports a weak urine flow and frequent dribbling after voiding. Which nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam.
- C. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.
- D. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encourage the client to schedule a digital rectal exam. This option is correct because the client's symptoms of nocturia, weak urine flow, and difficulty initiating urine stream suggest potential prostate issues, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). A digital rectal exam can help assess the size and condition of the prostate gland. It is an essential step in diagnosing BPH or other prostate conditions.
Other choices are incorrect because:
A: Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity is not the priority in this case, as the client's symptoms are more indicative of a prostate issue rather than a urinary tract infection.
C: Maintaining a voiding diary may provide information on the frequency and volume of urine output, but it does not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms.
D: Instructing the client in cleansing techniques for the glans penis is not relevant to the reported symptoms and does not address the potential prostate issue.
A client with myelogenous leukemia is receiving an autologous bone marrow transplantation (BMT). What is the priority intervention that the nurse should implement when the bone marrow is repopulating?
- A. Administer sargramostim (Leukine, Prokine).
- B. Infuse PRBC and platelet transfusions.
- C. Give parenteral prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Maintain a protective isolation environment.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Maintain a protective isolation environment. During bone marrow repopulation after transplantation, the client is at high risk of infection due to compromised immune function. By maintaining a protective isolation environment, the nurse can minimize the risk of exposure to pathogens that could lead to infections. This intervention helps prevent potential complications and supports the client's recovery.
Rationale for other choices:
A: Administering sargramostim may enhance white blood cell production but does not directly address the risk of infection during bone marrow repopulation.
B: Infusing PRBC and platelet transfusions may be necessary for managing anemia and thrombocytopenia but does not address the priority of infection prevention.
C: Giving prophylactic antibiotics may be beneficial in some cases, but maintaining a protective isolation environment is the priority to reduce the risk of infection in this immunocompromised client.
The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer pain medication as prescribed. This is the highest priority because acute pancreatitis is a painful condition, and managing pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain control also helps reduce stress on the pancreas and can aid in preventing complications.
Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels is important in diagnosing pancreatitis and assessing response to treatment, it is not the highest priority intervention.
Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral intake of clear liquids may exacerbate pancreatitis symptoms and lead to further complications.
Choice D is incorrect as assessing bowel sounds, while important for monitoring gastrointestinal function, is not the highest priority in the acute management of pancreatitis.
A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder refuses to get out of bed, eat, or participate in group therapy. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Offer the client high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals.
- B. Ask the client why they are not participating in therapy.
- C. Sit with the client and offer support without demanding participation.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because sitting with the client and offering support without demanding participation is crucial in building trust and rapport. This approach respects the client's autonomy and allows them to feel supported without pressure. It also creates a safe space for the client to open up when they are ready.
Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect:
A: Offering high-calorie snacks and frequent small meals does not address the core issue of the client's refusal to participate in therapy.
B: Asking the client why they are not participating in therapy may come off as confrontational and could further discourage them from opening up.
D: Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings of hopelessness may be overwhelming for them at this stage and could lead to resistance.
A male client is admitted to the neurological unit. He has just sustained a C-5 spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding of this client warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Is unable to feel sensation in the arms and hands.
- B. Has flaccid upper and lower extremities.
- C. Blood pressure is 110/70 and the apical pulse is 68.
- D. Respirations are shallow, labored, and 14 breaths/minute.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shallow, labored respirations at 14 breaths/minute indicate potential respiratory distress in a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury. This level of injury compromises the function of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, leading to impaired respiratory effort. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure and subsequent complications. Choices A and B are common findings in clients with spinal cord injuries and do not require immediate intervention. Choice C indicates stable vital signs within normal range, which do not necessitate immediate action.