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A client from a nursing home is admitted with urinary sepsis and has a single-lumen, peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC). Four medications are prescribed for 9:00 a.m. and the nurse is running behind schedule. Which medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours.
- B. Vancomycin (Vancocin) 1 gm in 250 ml D5W, IV over 90 minutes q12 hours.
- C. Pantoprazole (Protonix) 40 mg PO daily.
- D. Enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subq q24 hours.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) in 100 ml D5W, IV over 30 minutes q8 hours. In a patient with urinary sepsis, timely administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications. Piperacillin/tazobactam is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria commonly involved in sepsis. Administering it first ensures prompt initiation of treatment. Other choices (B) Vancomycin, (C) Pantoprazole, and (D) Enoxaparin are important medications but are not as time-sensitive in this scenario. Vancomycin and Enoxaparin have longer administration times, and Pantoprazole is a maintenance medication that is not urgent in the acute management of sepsis.
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A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and a drop in blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the TPN infusion.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- D. Administer oxygen at 2 liters/minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in Trendelenburg position. This is the first action to take in a client with suspected air embolism, a potential complication of central line insertion. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position with the head down and the legs elevated can help prevent air from reaching the heart and lungs. This action can help stabilize the client's condition before further interventions can be implemented.
Stopping the TPN infusion (choice A) can be important, but the priority in this situation is to address the potential air embolism. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after the immediate intervention. Administering oxygen (choice D) is important, but placing the client in Trendelenburg position takes precedence in this emergency situation.
Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?
- A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
- B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
- C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
- D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the OB nurse's background in obstetrics makes them most suitable to care for a post-operative patient with an IV. This assignment aligns with the nurse's skill set and ensures safe and competent care. Choices B, C, and D involve medical-surgical conditions that may require specialized knowledge and skills beyond the OB nurse's expertise, potentially compromising patient care. Assigning the OB nurse to care for a post-operative patient with an IV is the most appropriate choice given the circumstances.
When a client expresses, 'I don't know how I will go on' while discussing feelings related to a recent loss, the nurse remains silent. What is the most likely reason for the nurse's behavior?
- A. The nurse is indicating disapproval of the statement.
- B. The nurse is showing respect for the client's loss.
- C. Silence is mirroring the client's sadness.
- D. Silence enables the client to contemplate what was expressed.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse's silence allows the client to reflect on and process their emotions after expressing uncertainty about the future. By remaining silent, the nurse gives the client space to explore their feelings and thoughts without interruption. This can help the client gain insight and come to terms with their emotions.
A: The nurse's silence does not indicate disapproval, as it is a common therapeutic technique.
B: While the nurse may be showing respect for the client's loss, the primary reason for the silence is to facilitate the client's reflection.
C: Although silence can sometimes mirror the client's emotions, the main purpose here is to enable contemplation rather than direct mirroring.
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Limit your fluid intake while on this medication.
- C. Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor your blood glucose levels regularly. This is important because metformin helps lower blood sugar levels, and monitoring glucose levels helps ensure the medication is effective and the client is not experiencing hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option A is incorrect because metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is incorrect as metformin does not typically require fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as metformin does not affect potassium levels. Regularly monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes effectively.
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. Dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a distended abdomen indicate a potential risk for aspiration or impaired gastrointestinal motility. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these conditions. The nurse should question this prescription to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns for dysphagia and bowel issues. Total parenteral nutrition, nasogastric tube connected to suction, and metoclopramide can be appropriate interventions for nutritional support and bowel motility in this scenario.