A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:
- A. is given after the D10W is finished.
- B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
- C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
- D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.
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Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
- A. anemia
- B. edema
- C. painless vaginal bleeding
- D. fatigue
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:
- A. an antihyperglycemic agent.
- B. a hypoglycemic agent.
- C. an insulin analogue.
- D. a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia. Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin. Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication. Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.
A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?
- A. metabolic acidosis
- B. respiratory acidosis
- C. metabolic alkalosis
- D. respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.
When teaching bleeding precautions to a client with leukemia, the PN should include which of the following instructions?
- A. Use a soft toothbrush.
- B. Use dental floss daily.
- C. Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes.
- D. Use a triple-edged razor.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a soft toothbrush.' A soft toothbrush is recommended because it is less likely to cause the gums to bleed in clients with leukemia, who are at risk of bleeding due to overcrowding of white cells at the expense of other cell types like platelets. Choice B, 'Use dental floss daily,' is incorrect because dental floss is contraindicated and can make the gums bleed in clients with leukemia. Choice C, 'Hold pressure on any scrapes for 1-2 minutes,' is incorrect because when clotting is impaired, pressure should be held for 5-10 minutes or longer until the bleeding stops. Choice D, 'Use a triple-edged razor,' is incorrect because an electric razor should be used instead of a triple-edged razor to prevent small cuts and bleeding in clients with leukemia.
When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, what should be instructed?
- A. switch to a stronger dose of the same medication.
- B. discontinue the medication for a few weeks.
- C. continue taking the same medication, but use it more frequently.
- D. use a combination of medications for better relief.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a person using over-the-counter nasal decongestant drops experiences unrelieved and worsening nasal congestion, it is crucial to discontinue the medication for a few weeks. Prolonged use of decongestant drops can lead to rebound congestion, which is relieved by stopping the medication for a period of time. Nasal congestion occurs due to various factors like infection, inflammation, or allergy, leading to swelling of the nasal cavity. Nasal decongestants work by stimulating alpha-adrenergic receptors, causing vasoconstriction and shrinking of nasal mucous membranes. However, prolonged use can result in vasodilation, worsening nasal congestion. Switching to a stronger dose of the same medication is not recommended as it can exacerbate the issue. Continuing the same medication more frequently or using a combination of medications are also not advised and may lead to side effects. Educating individuals on proper decongestant use and potential risks of prolonged usage is essential, especially for those with specific health conditions.
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