Nokea
A client has a new diagnosis of COPD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Breathe rapidly through your mouth when using the incentive spirometer.
- B. Use pursed-lip breathing during periods of dyspnea.
- C. Avoid drinking fluids during meals.
- D. Use diaphragmatic breathing during periods of dyspnea.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps control shortness of breath and improves oxygenation. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips, which helps keep airways open. Option A is incorrect as breathing rapidly through the mouth when using the incentive spirometer can lead to hyperventilation. Option C is incorrect because it is important for clients with COPD to stay hydrated by drinking fluids between meals, but not during meals which can cause bloating and discomfort. Option D is incorrect as diaphragmatic breathing, though beneficial, is not the preferred technique for managing dyspnea in COPD; pursed-lip breathing is more effective.
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A client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to increase dietary fiber.
- B. Maintain the client on a low-residue diet.
- C. Provide the client with frequent high-calorie snacks.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a high-fiber diet.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease, the nurse should maintain the client on a low-residue diet. This diet helps to minimize bowel irritation by reducing the volume and frequency of stools. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to increase dietary fiber (Choice A) and eat a high-fiber diet (Choice D) can worsen symptoms and aggravate bowel inflammation in Crohn's disease. Providing the client with frequent high-calorie snacks (Choice C) may not be appropriate during an exacerbation since high-fat foods can be harder to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.
A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.
A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.
When preparing education materials for a client, what technique should be used to make the information accessible?
- A. Emphasize important information using bold lettering.
- B. Use a 7th-grade reading level.
- C. Avoid using cartoons in the material.
- D. Use words with three or four syllables.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 7th-grade reading level. This technique ensures that the information provided is accessible and easily understandable for most clients. Using simple language helps to avoid confusion and ensures that the message is conveyed clearly. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not improve overall accessibility. Avoiding cartoons in the material (Choice C) is not directly related to making information accessible. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can complicate the material and hinder understanding, making it less accessible.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.