Nokea
A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with a meal to reduce gastric irritation.
- D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if difficulty swallowing.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation. It is important to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with a meal or crushing the tablet are not recommended instructions for alendronate administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the proper administration guidelines for alendronate.
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Pregnancy advise is given in what Part of the MIMS:
- A. Preg. Cat.
- B. pre and post prandial advice ;
- C. drug category;
- D. abbreviations
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pregnancy advice is typically provided under the "Preg. Cat." section in the MIMS (Monthly Index of Medical Specialities) guide or database. This section specifically categorizes medications based on their safety profiles during pregnancy, providing healthcare professionals with essential information to make informed decisions regarding drug use in pregnant patients. It includes details on pregnancy categories that classify drugs according to their potential risks during pregnancy, guiding healthcare providers on the appropriateness of prescribing certain medications to pregnant individuals. Therefore, for pregnancy-related advice in the context of medication safety, referring to the "Preg. Cat." section in the MIMS is the most relevant source of information.
Recent studies into the pathogenesis of halothane-induced malignant hyperthermia indicate which of the following as the likely implicating cause?
- A. Drug toxicity
- B. Excitation-contraction coupling defect
- C. Myoplasmic sodium defect
- D. Oxygen-hemoglobin concentration deficit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia (MH) from halothane involves excitation-contraction coupling defects . MH, a genetic disorder, stems from ryanodine receptor (RYR1) mutations, causing uncontrolled calcium release in muscle, not drug toxicity . Sodium defects , oxygen deficits , or neural overmodulation (E) aren't implicated. This coupling defect triggers hypermetabolism, explaining MH's rapid onset with halothane exposure.
Which of the following has the shortest elimination half-life?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Morphine
- C. Methadone
- D. Remifentanil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elimination half-life measures how quickly a drug is cleared from plasma. Naloxone's half-life is about 1-2 hours, used for opioid reversal. Morphine's is 2-4 hours, reflecting its duration as an analgesic. Methadone's is long, 15-60 hours, suiting addiction maintenance. Fentanyl's is 2-4 hours, typical for anesthesia. Remifentanil, an ultra-short-acting opioid, has a half-life of 3-10 minutes due to rapid esterase metabolism, making it ideal for procedures needing quick offset. Its brevity contrasts with others, ensuring minimal residual effects, a key advantage in critical care settings where rapid recovery is essential.
Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a short treatment of anxiety. Which of the following results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of the medication?
- A. 5-10 mcg/ml
- B. 15-40 mcg/ml
- C. 45-65 mcg/ml
- D. 50-90 mcg/ml
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic serum range for phenobarbital (luminal) in the treatment of anxiety is typically 5-10 mcg/ml. This range is considered effective in managing anxiety symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects associated with higher levels of the medication. Lower serum levels may be ineffective in treating anxiety, while higher levels increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, maintaining the serum concentration within the range of 5-10 mcg/ml is optimal for therapeutic benefits with minimal risks.
What is pharmacodynamics?
- A. The medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength, and directions for synthesis
- B. The drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions
- C. The maximum response that a drug can produce
- D. Movements of the drugs throughout the body
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions. It involves understanding how drugs interact with the body at the molecular level to produce their effects, including mechanisms of action, receptor binding, and downstream physiological responses. Choice A is incorrect because it describes pharmacopeia, which is a reference book containing standards for drugs. Choice C refers to efficacy, which is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Choice D describes pharmacokinetics, which focuses on the movement of drugs within the body.