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A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. Consume potassium-rich foods.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and dehydration. The client should be educated to watch for symptoms like dry mouth, increased thirst, weakness, dizziness, and decreased urine output. Prompt recognition of dehydration signs is crucial for timely intervention and prevention of complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Taking Hydrochlorothiazide in the morning is not a specific instruction for this medication. While potassium-rich foods can be important when taking certain medications, it is not the priority instruction for Hydrochlorothiazide. Taking this medication with food may help reduce stomach upset but is not the most critical instruction for a diuretic like Hydrochlorothiazide.
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A client has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a non-hairy area.
- B. Change the patch every 72 hours.
- C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
- D. Do not cut the patch to adjust the dosage.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client using a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, potentially causing an overdose. Instructing the client to avoid heat sources is crucial to ensure their safety and the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to a non-hairy area, changing it every 72 hours, and not cutting the patch are general guidelines for using transdermal patches but do not specifically address the unique risks associated with Fentanyl patches.
A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these adverse effects and ensures the client's safety. Option A is incorrect because Furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbed sleep due to frequent urination. Option B is incorrect as Furosemide can cause potassium loss, so advising to avoid foods high in potassium would not be appropriate. Option D is incorrect because taking Furosemide with meals may increase the risk of side effects and decrease its effectiveness.
A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am constipated frequently.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
When a client is receiving treatment with methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Calcium
- D. Iron
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation is crucial for clients undergoing methotrexate treatment because methotrexate functions as a folic acid antagonist. By supplementing with folic acid, the risk of methotrexate toxicity can be minimized, improving the treatment's effectiveness and safety. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended in conjunction with methotrexate therapy and may not provide the same protective benefits as folic acid.