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A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am frequently constipated.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am frequently constipated.' Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down intestinal motility, leading to constipation as a side effect. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with adverse effects of Verapamil. Increased urination is not a common side effect, skin peeling is not related to Verapamil use, and ringing in the ears is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
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While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hemorrhagic stroke
- B. Thromboembolic stroke
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Neutropenia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.
A client with migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The client had a prior myocardial infarction.
- B. The client takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
- C. The client takes an SSRI for depression.
- D. An ECG indicates a first-degree heart block.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with first-degree heart block due to its negative inotropic and chronotropic effects. The nurse should report this finding to the provider to consider an alternative therapy to prevent potential worsening of cardiac conduction abnormalities. Choices A, B, and C are not directly contraindications to Propranolol therapy for migraine headaches and do not pose immediate risks that would require reporting to the provider.
When a client is receiving treatment with methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Calcium
- D. Iron
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation is crucial for clients undergoing methotrexate treatment because methotrexate functions as a folic acid antagonist. By supplementing with folic acid, the risk of methotrexate toxicity can be minimized, improving the treatment's effectiveness and safety. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended in conjunction with methotrexate therapy and may not provide the same protective benefits as folic acid.
A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to treat angina. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of Verapamil?
- A. I am constipated frequently.
- B. I have been urinating more frequently.
- C. My skin is peeling.
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Constipation is a common adverse effect of Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker. Verapamil can slow down bowel movements and lead to constipation as a side effect. Therefore, the client reporting frequent constipation should alert the nurse to a potential adverse effect of Verapamil. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Verapamil use. Increased urination is not a common side effect of Verapamil, peeling skin is more likely related to a dermatological issue, and ringing in the ears is not a known adverse effect of Verapamil.
A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.