Nokea
A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
- C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
- D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Arrhythmias
- C. Blurred vision
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding.
A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
- B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
- C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
- D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications.
What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?
- A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
- B. Dissolves existing blood clots
- C. Dilates coronary arteries
- D. Treats rhythm disturbances
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Warfarin is classified as an anticoagulant, which means its primary function is to prevent the formation of blood clots. By inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver, warfarin reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it an important medication in preventing conditions like strokes and deep vein thrombosis.
A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient?
- A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- B. Lithium
- C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
- D. Spironolactone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It belongs to the class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which work by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain to produce a calming effect. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, not typically used for anxiety or panic attacks. Lithium is primarily used to treat bipolar disorder, not anxiety. Spironolactone is a diuretic primarily used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, not anxiety or panic attacks.
What should a patient taking Omeprazole report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Black, tarry stools
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Abdominal pain
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.