Nokea
A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?
- A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
- B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
- C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
- D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but can still eat breakfast
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.
After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?
- A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
- B. To prevent hip dislocation.
- C. To improve circulation in the legs.
- D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.
Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with mood regulation and is targeted by antidepressants?
- A. Serotonin
- B. Dopamine
- C. GABA
- D. Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serotonin. Serotonin plays a vital role in mood regulation, and its imbalance is often associated with depression. Many antidepressants function by boosting serotonin levels in the brain. Dopamine (Choice B) is more linked to reward and pleasure pathways in the brain, not primarily targeted for mood regulation. GABA (Choice C) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that helps reduce neuronal excitability, not primarily associated with mood regulation. Acetylcholine (Choice D) is involved in muscle movement and cognitive functions, not the primary target of antidepressants for mood regulation.
An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?
- A. Plan to have the same nursing staff provide care for the client whenever possible
- B. Describe the activities available to residents and encourage him to choose the ones he prefers
- C. Encourage the client to remain on the unit for three weeks until he is oriented to his new surroundings
- D. Introduce the client to the nursing staff and other residents as soon as possible
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer's disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.