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A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately.
- B. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods.
- C. Continue to monitor the client's intake and output.
- D. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.
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A client recovering from a cystoscopy is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Decrease in urine output
- B. Blood clots present in the urine
- C. Prescription for metformin
- D. A & B
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After a cystoscopy, the nurse should monitor urine output and promptly contact the provider if there is a decrease or absence of urine output. Additionally, the nurse should assess for blood in the urine. While some pink-tinged urine may be expected, the presence of gross bleeding or blood clots warrants immediate provider notification. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive sign and does not require urgent intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received contrast dye, which is not used in a cystoscopy. A burning sensation when urinating is a common post-procedure experience and does not necessitate contacting the provider. Therefore, choices A and B are the correct answers as they indicate potentially serious complications that require immediate attention, while choices C and D do not align with urgent concerns following a cystoscopy.
Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?
- A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
- B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
- C. To improve the taste.
- D. To minimize toxic effects.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.
After educating a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day.
- B. I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet.
- C. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones.
- D. The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To prevent the formation of renal calculi, it is essential to maintain adequate hydration as dehydration can contribute to the precipitation of minerals leading to stone formation. Therefore, the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching is choice A. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine and reduces the risk of stone formation. Eliminating all sources of calcium is not recommended as calcium is essential for various bodily functions and eliminating it can lead to other health issues. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products do not directly cause kidney stones. Antibiotics are not used to prevent or treat renal calculi, as they are not caused by bacterial infections.
When a patient starts taking amoxicillin, which foods should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid?
- A. Green leafy vegetables
- B. Beef and other red meat
- C. Coffee, tea, and colas
- D. Acidic fruits and juices
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Acidic fruits and juices. Amoxicillin can be irritating to the stomach, so avoiding acidic fruits and juices is recommended to reduce stomach discomfort or potential interactions. Green leafy vegetables (Choice A), beef and other red meat (Choice B), and coffee, tea, and colas (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated with amoxicillin. It is important to focus on acidic foods and beverages to promote comfort and effectiveness of the medication.
A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?
- A. Pupil constriction
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Complaints of dry mouth
- D. Complaints of feeling sweaty
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Complaints of feeling sweaty.' Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, commonly causes the side effect of decreased sweating, not increased urine output or pupil constriction. While dry mouth is a possible side effect, it is less likely than the altered sweating pattern. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for complaints of feeling sweaty due to the potential side effect of decreased sweating associated with scopolamine.