Nokea
A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Delirium
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Hypotension
- D. Pinpoint rash
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.
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A client is preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood. All of the following information is part of teaching for this client EXCEPT:
- A. Avoid eating red meat for 3 days before the test
- B. Collect the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement
- C. The stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative
- D. A small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood testing, clients need specific instructions to ensure accurate results. It is crucial to educate clients to avoid eating red meat for at least 3 days before the test, as the blood in the meat can interfere with the test results. Clients should be informed that the stool does not need to be kept in a container with preservative as it is not required for this type of testing. Additionally, clients should be aware that a small part of the stool from two areas will be tested using a smear. However, collecting the stool sample from the toilet after having a bowel movement is not recommended as it may introduce contaminants and affect the accuracy of the test. Therefore, this information is not part of the correct teaching for the client preparing to give a stool sample for occult blood.
A nurse is caring for a 3-day old infant who needs an exchange
transfusion. Which of the following statements is appropriate for
teaching the child's parents about this procedure?
- A. The registered nurse will be performing the procedure
- B. The procedure takes approximately 1 ? hours.
- C. The nurse will draw out 250cc of blood and then immediately replace
it with 250cc - D. The infant will continue to receive phototherapy during the
procedure.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: : An exchange transfusion is a method of controlling high
bilirubin levels in infants when traditional phototherapy is
unsuccessful. During an exchange transfusion, the physician removes
5-10 cc of blood and then replaces it with donor blood. The parents of
this infant should know that the procedure is always performed by a
physician and will take approximately 1 ½ hours to complete.
A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?
- A. Elevated fibrinogen level
- B. Prolonged PT
- C. Elevated platelet count
- D. Depressed d-dimer level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.
When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?
- A. A normal reading
- B. An abnormally low reading
- C. An abnormally high reading
- D. A fluctuating reading
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.
A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?
- A. 5 mm/hr
- B. 12 mm/hr
- C. 28 mm/hr
- D. 40 mm/hr
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.