NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 Related

Review NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023 related questions and content

A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

  • A. increased platelet count
  • B. increased fibrinogen
  • C. decreased fibrin split products
  • D. decreased bleeding
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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How can a diet high in fiber content benefit an individual?

  • A. aid in weight loss.
  • B. reduce diabetic ketoacidosis.
  • C. lower cholesterol.
  • D. reduce the need for folate.
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A diet high in fiber content can help lower cholesterol levels by reducing the absorption of cholesterol in the bloodstream. Fiber-rich foods, like grains, apples, potatoes, and beans, can aid in this process. While fiber can aid in weight loss by promoting a feeling of fullness and aiding digestion, it is not primarily for fast weight loss. Fiber does not directly reduce the risk of diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more related to managing blood sugar levels through insulin therapy and dietary control. Folate is a B vitamin that is essential for various bodily functions and is not influenced by fiber intake. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower cholesterol, as fiber plays a significant role in this benefit.

A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

  • A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary
  • B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed
  • C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35
  • D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's BMI is above 30, which falls under the obesity category. Therefore, a weight-reduction diet and increased physical activity are necessary to address the client's weight status and promote overall health.

Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?

  • A. alcohol use
  • B. certain types of sexual practices
  • C. oral contraception use
  • D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.

Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?

  • A. influenza virus
  • B. herpes virus
  • C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.

Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?

  • A. prednisone (Colisone)
  • B. allopurinol (Zyloprim)
  • C. indomethacin (Indocin)
  • D. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.

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