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A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?
- A. It is a condition in which one or more tumors, called gastrinomas, form in the pancreas or in the upper part of the small intestine (duodenum).
- B. It is critical to promptly report any findings of peptic ulcers to your health care provider.
- C. Treatment consists of medications to reduce acid and heal any peptic ulcers and, if possible, surgery to remove any tumors.
- D. The average age at diagnosis is 50 years, and peptic ulcers may occur in unusual areas of the stomach or intestine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prompt reporting of peptic ulcers is crucial in managing Zollinger-Ellison syndrome to prevent complications and guide treatment. While choices A, C, and D provide relevant information about the condition and its treatment, the most important aspect in the client's care is the prompt reporting of peptic ulcers. This is because untreated peptic ulcers in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to serious complications such as gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation. Therefore, ensuring timely communication with the healthcare provider is essential for effective management of the condition.
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An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Add a thickening agent to the fluids
- B. Check the client's gag reflex
- C. Feed the client only solid foods
- D. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is crucial in this situation as coughing while consuming liquids can indicate a risk of aspiration. Assessing the gag reflex can help determine if the client is safe to swallow without inhaling fluids into the lungs, which could lead to further respiratory complications. Adding a thickening agent may not address the underlying issue of aspiration risk. Feeding the client only solid foods is not appropriate without assessing the swallowing safety first. Increasing the rate of intravenous fluids does not directly address the client's difficulty with liquid intake.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?
- A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
- B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
- C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
- D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.
When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.
A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).
- A. Avoid unpasteurized dairy products.
- B. Keep cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F).
- C. Discard leftovers after 48 hours.
- D. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly in clean water.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.