A client has been prescribed procainamide. The nurse implements which intervention before administering the medication to minimize the client's risk for injury?
- A. Obtaining a chest x-ray
- B. Assessing blood pressure and pulse
- C. Obtaining a complete blood cell count and liver function studies
- D. Scheduling a drug level to be drawn 1 hour after the dose is administered
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Procainamide is an antidysrhythmic medication. Before the medication is administered, the client's blood pressure and pulse are checked. This medication can cause toxic effects, and serum blood levels would be checked before administering the medication (therapeutic serum level is 4 to 10 mcg/mL [17.00 to 42.50 mcmol/L]). A chest x-ray and obtaining a complete blood cell count and liver function studies are unnecessary.
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The nurse assesses the client diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for early signs of Kaposi's sarcoma. What characteristics would be consistent with that lesion? Select all that apply.
- A. Flat
- B. Raised
- C. Resembling a blister
- D. Light blue in color
- E. Brownish and scaly in appearance
- F. Color varies from pink to dark violet or black
Correct Answer: A,F
Rationale: Kaposi's sarcoma generally starts with an area that is flat and pink that changes to a dark violet or black color. The lesions are usually present bilaterally. They may appear in many areas of the body and are treated with radiation, chemotherapy, and cryotherapy. None of the other options are associated with this type of lesion.
A client has undergone angioplasty of the iliac artery. Which technique should the nurse perform to best detect bleeding from the angioplasty in the region of the iliac artery?
- A. Palpate the pedal pulses.
- B. Measure the abdominal girth.
- C. Assess the client about the level of pain in the area.
- D. Auscultate over the iliac area with a Doppler device.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bleeding after iliac artery angioplasty causes blood to accumulate in the retroperitoneal area. This can most directly be detected by measuring abdominal girth. Palpation and auscultation of pulses determine patency. Assessment of pain is routinely done, and mild regional discomfort is expected.
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris. On assessment of the client, the nurse should look for which sign characteristic of this condition?
- A. Turner's sign
- B. Chvostek's sign
- C. Nikolsky's sign
- D. Trousseau's sign
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A hallmark sign of pemphigus vulgaris is Nikolsky's sign, which occurs when the epidermis can be rubbed off by slight friction or injury. Other characteristics include flaccid bullae that rupture easily and emit a foul-smelling drainage, leaving crusted, denuded skin. The lesions are common on the face, back, chest, and umbilicus. Even slight pressure on an intact blister may cause spread to adjacent skin. Turner's sign refers to a grayish discoloration of the flanks and is seen in clients with acute pancreatitis. Chvostek's sign, seen in tetany, is a spasm of the facial muscles elicited by tapping the facial nerve in the region of the parotid gland. Trousseau's sign is a sign for tetany, in which carpal spasm can be elicited by compressing the upper arm with a blood pressure cuff inflated above the systolic pressure and causing ischemia to the nerves distally.
A client has fallen and sustained a leg injury. Which question should the nurse ask to help determine if the client sustained a fracture?
- A. Is the pain a dull ache?
- B. Is the pain sharp and continuous?
- C. Does the discomfort feel like a cramp?
- D. Does the pain feel like the muscle was stretched?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fracture pain is generally described as sharp, continuous, and increasing in frequency. Bone pain is often described as a dull, deep ache. Muscle injury is often described as an aching or cramping pain, or soreness. Strains result from trauma to a muscle body or the attachment of a tendon from overstretching or overextension.
A client experiencing difficulty breathing and increased pulmonary congestion was prescribed furosemide 40 mg to be given intravenously. After an hour which assessment value indicates that the therapy has been effective?
- A. The lungs are now clear upon auscultation.
- B. The urine output has increased by 400 mL.
- C. The blood pressure has decreased from 118/64 mm Hg to 106/62 mm Hg.
- D. The serum potassium has decreased from 4.7 mEq to 4.1 mEq (4.7 mmol/L to 4.1 mmol/L).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic. In this situation, it was given to decrease preload and reduce the pulmonary congestion and associated difficulty in breathing. Although all options may occur, option 1 is the reason that the furosemide was administered.