A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min per nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?
- A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
- B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
- C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
- D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: COPD clients are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia is the main stimulus to breathe in persons with chronic hypercapnia. Increasing the level of oxygen decreases the stimulus to breathe.
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The nurse is working with the family whose child is taking atomoxetine for ADHD. Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching the parents? Select all that apply.
- A. Provide stimulation because atomoxetine causes sedation.
- B. Administer atomoxetine immediately after eating a meal.
- C. Administer atomoxetine at least 6 hours before bedtime.
- D. Weigh the child weekly to monitor for unintended weight loss.
- E. Consult with the prescriber before giving cold or allergy medication.
Correct Answer: B,C,D,E
Rationale: Atomoxetine (Strattera) should be taken after meals, at least 6 hours before bedtime, with weekly weight monitoring and caution with OTC medications.
The nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to the child in severe pain. The child has an IV infusion of D5W at 50 mL/hr through a PICC. Which intervention is best when administering the medication?
- A. Disconnect the infusion, inject 3 mL of normal saline, and give the morphine sulfate undiluted.
- B. Question the prescribed medication because morphine sulfate cannot be given through a PICC line.
- C. Give the morphine sulfate undiluted into the existing IV tubing's medication port closest to the child.
- D. Dilute the morphine sulfate with 5 mL of NS and give over 5 minutes into the IV tubing port closest to the child.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Unnecessary IV disconnections increase the risk for infection. Morphine sulfate is compatible with D5W. B: Morphine sulfate can be administered into a PICC access device. C: Administering undiluted morphine sulfate to a child increases the risk of adverse effects. D: The nurse should dilute the morphine sulfate before administration to prevent too-rapid administration and adverse effects. A single dose should be given over 4 to 5 minutes.
The client has been receiving clonidine 0.1 mg via transdermal patch once every 7 days. The NA removes the patch with morning cares. Eight hours later, the nurse discovers that the clonidine patch is no longer present. Which assessment finding should be most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Skin tear is noted on the client's upper chest.
- B. Client reports having an excruciating headache.
- C. Blood pressure is noted to be 182/100 mm Hg.
- D. The ECG monitor shows a heart rate of 120 bpm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: Although a skin tear is concerning and may have occurred during removal, it is not the most concerning. B: Headache can occur from the abrupt removal of clonidine but is not the most concerning. C: Clonidine (Catapres) is an antihypertensive medication. Rebound hypertension occurs from abrupt withdrawal. Immediate intervention is required to lower the BP. D: Tachycardia is an adverse effect of clonidine.
The LPN is preparing a client for discharge and the discharge medications include phenobarbital. Which of these client statements would indicate a need for reinforced teaching about this medication?
- A. I will need to avoid eating excessive leafy greens.
- B. It's best to take this medication with food.
- C. I can't wait to get back to my nightly glass of wine.
- D. I should try to take this medication at the same time every day.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phenobarbital should not be taken with alcohol as it is a barbiturate. Alcohol may increase the sedative effect.
The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is:
- A. sickle cell preparation
- B. peripheral smear
- C. sickledex
- D. hemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hemoglobin electrophoresis identifies the specific hemoglobin types, distinguishing sickle cell trait (HbAS) from sickle cell disease (HbSS).
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