Nokea
A client has just been admitted to the emergency department with chest pain. Serum cardiac enzyme levels are drawn, and the results indicate an elevated serum creatine kinase (CK)-MB isoenzyme, troponin T, and troponin I. The nurse concludes that these results are compatible with what diagnosis?
- A. Stable angina
- B. Unstable angina
- C. Prinzmetal's angina
- D. New-onset myocardial infarction (MI)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Creatine kinase (CK)-MB isoenzyme is a sensitive indicator of myocardial damage. Levels begin to rise 3 to 6 hours after the onset of chest pain, peak at approximately 24 hours, and return to normal in about 3 days. Troponin is a regulatory protein found in striated muscle (skeletal and myocardial). Increased amounts of troponins are released into the bloodstream when an infarction causes damage to the myocardium. Troponin I is particularly sensitive to myocardial muscle injury; therefore, the client's results are compatible with new-onset MI. Options 1, 2, and 3 all refer to angina. These levels would not be elevated in angina.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is assessing a client who is being treated with a beta-adrenergic blocker. Which assessment findings would indicate that the client may be experiencing dose-related side effects of the medication? Select all that apply.
- A. Dizziness
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Chest pain
- D. Reflex tachycardia
- E. Sexual dysfunction
- F. Cardiac dysrhythmias
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers, commonly called beta blockers, are useful in treating cardiac dysrhythmias, mild hypertension, mild tachycardia, and angina pectoris. Side effects commonly associated with beta blockers are usually dose related and include dizziness (hypotensive effect), bradycardia, hypotension, and sexual dysfunction (impotence). Options 3, 4, and 6 are reasons for prescribing a beta blocker; however, these are general side effects of alpha-adrenergic blockers.
The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who has returned to the nursing unit after left nephrectomy. Which assessments should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
- A. Pain level
- B. Vital signs
- C. Hourly urine output
- D. Tolerance for sips of clear liquids
- E. Ability to cough and deep breathe
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: After nephrectomy, it is imperative to measure the urine output on an hourly basis. This is done to monitor the effectiveness of the remaining kidney and detect renal failure early, if it should occur. The client may also experience significant pain after this surgery, which could affect the client's ability to reposition, cough, and deep breathe. Therefore, the next most important measurements are vital signs, pain level, and ability to cough and deep breathe. Clear liquids are not given until the client has bowel sounds.
A client admitted to the nursing unit with a closed head injury 6 hours ago has begun to vomit, and reports being dizzy and having a headache. Based on these data, which is the most important nursing action?
- A. Administering a prescribed antiemetic
- B. Notifying the primary health care provider of the client's condition
- C. Having the client rate the headache pain on a scale of 1 to 10
- D. Reminding the client to use the call bell when needing help to the bathroom
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client with a closed head injury is at risk of developing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Increased ICP is evidenced by signs and symptoms such as headache, dizziness, confusion, weakness, and vomiting. Because of the implications of the client's manifestations, the most important nursing action is to notify the primary health care provider. Although the other nursing actions are not inappropriate, none of them address the critical issue of the potential of the client developing ICP.
The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test to a client. The nurse determines that which area is to be used for injection of the medication?
- A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm near a mole
- B. Inner aspect of the forearm that is close to a burn scar
- C. Inner aspect of the forearm that is not heavily pigmented
- D. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm that has a small amount of hair
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Intradermal injections are most commonly given in the inner surface of the forearm. Other sites include the dorsal area of the upper arm or the upper back beneath the scapulae. The nurse finds an area that is not heavily pigmented and is clear of hairy areas or lesions that could interfere with reading the results.
A clinic nurse is caring for a client with a suspected diagnosis of gestational hypertension. The nurse assesses the client, expecting to note which set of findings if gestational hypertension is present?
- A. Edema, ketonuria, and obesity
- B. Edema, tachycardia, and ketonuria
- C. Glycosuria, hypertension, and obesity
- D. Elevated blood pressure and proteinuria
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is the most common hypertensive disorder in pregnancy. It is characterized by the development of hypertension and proteinuria. Glycosuria and ketonuria occur in diabetes mellitus. Tachycardia and obesity are not specifically related to diagnosing gestational hypertension. Edema is not specific to gestational hypertension and can occur in many disorders.