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A client has malignant lymphoma. As part of her chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil (Leukeran), 10mg by mouth daily. When caring for the client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first administration of chorambucil might this reaction occur?
- A. Immediately
- B. 2 to 3 weeks
- C. 1 week
- D. 1 month
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia (hair loss) is a common adverse reaction of chlorambucil, typically occurring 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration. This is due to the drug's effect on rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Immediate onset (Choice A) is unlikely as it takes time for the drug to affect hair growth. One week (Choice C) is too soon for alopecia to manifest. One month (Choice D) is too long as alopecia usually occurs earlier. Therefore, the correct window for alopecia onset after chlorambucil administration is 2 to 3 weeks.
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Which of the ff precautions must a nurse take while caring for clients with HIV/AIDS to reduce occupational risks?
- A. Transport specimens of body fluid in leakproof containers
- B. Seek prescription for a fusion inhibitor to reduce risk of infection
- C. Avoid administering IV drugs
- D. Avoid cleaning the clients room, esp cleaning urine, stool, or vomit
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Transporting specimens of body fluid in leakproof containers reduces the risk of exposure to HIV/AIDS. This precaution ensures that any potentially infectious material is securely contained. Choice B is incorrect as fusion inhibitors are not prescribed for reducing occupational risks. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address reducing occupational risks related to HIV/AIDS. Choice D is incorrect as it is essential for a nurse to clean the client's room, but with proper precautions in place to prevent exposure to bodily fluids.
The nursing diagnosis Impaired Gas Exchange, prioritized by Maslow’s hierarchy of basic human needs, is appropriate for what level of needs?
- A. Physiologic
- B. Safety
- C. Love and belonging
- D. Self-actualization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Physiologic. Impaired Gas Exchange pertains to the basic physiological need for oxygenation, which is fundamental for survival. Maslow's hierarchy states that physiological needs are the most fundamental and must be met before progressing to higher-level needs. Safety, love and belonging, and self-actualization are higher-level needs compared to physiological needs. Therefore, Impaired Gas Exchange aligns with the physiological level of needs in Maslow's hierarchy.
When teaching a client about insulin administration, the nurse should include which instruction?
- A. “Administer insulin after the first meal of the day.”
- B. “Inject insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle.”
- C. “Shake the insulin vial vigorously before withdrawing the medication.”
- D. “Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe.”
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because drawing up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe prevents contamination. Clear insulin is drawn up first to avoid clouding from the cloudy insulin. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents potential medication errors.
A: Incorrect. Administering insulin after the first meal may lead to hypoglycemia if the client skips or delays meals.
B: Incorrect. Insulin should not be injected into the deltoid muscle as it can lead to inconsistent absorption rates.
C: Incorrect. Vigorously shaking the insulin vial can cause bubbles, affecting the accuracy of the dose and potentially altering its effectiveness.
The nurse in the postoperative unit prepares to receive a client after a balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery. Which of the ff items of priority should the nurse keep at the bedside for such client?
- A. Blood pressure apparatus
- B. IV infusion stand
- C. Call bell
- D. Endotracheal intubation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. A: Blood pressure apparatus is essential to monitor for any signs of bleeding or clot formation after carotid angioplasty.
2. B: IV infusion stand is important but not the priority for immediate postoperative monitoring.
3. C: Call bell is important for the client to call for assistance but not the priority for immediate postoperative care.
4. D: Endotracheal intubation is not necessary after a carotid angioplasty and is not a priority item for bedside care.
Summary: Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for detecting complications post carotid angioplasty. IV stand, call bell, and endotracheal intubation are important but not the priority in this scenario.
After assessing the patient and identifying the need for headache relief, the nurse administers acetaminophen for the patient’s headache. Which action by the nurse is priority for this patient?
- A. Eliminate headache from the nursing care plan.
- B. Direct the nursing assistive personnel to ask if the headache is relieved.
- C. Reassess the patient’s pain level in 30 minutes.
- D. Revise the plan of care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reassess the patient's pain level in 30 minutes. This is the priority action as it allows the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the acetaminophen in relieving the patient's headache. By reassessing the pain level, the nurse can determine if the medication is working or if further intervention is needed.
A: Eliminating the headache from the care plan is not appropriate as the patient's comfort and pain relief should be a priority.
B: Directing the nursing assistive personnel to inquire if the headache is relieved is not thorough assessment and does not provide direct evaluation of the patient's pain level.
D: Revising the plan of care may be necessary based on the reassessment, but it is not the immediate priority compared to evaluating the patient's response to treatment.