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A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- C. White blood cells
- D. Platelets
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.
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When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?
- A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
- B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
- C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
- D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.
A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
- B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
- C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
- D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.
Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?
- A. A young adult with a history of Down syndrome
- B. A teenager who reads at a 4th-grade level
- C. An elderly client with numerous arthritic nodules on the hands
- D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a preschooler with intermittent alertness. This client may not have the cognitive ability to effectively use a PCA pump due to their age and alertness level. They may not understand how to self-administer the analgesia. Choices A, B, and C are more appropriate candidates for PCA as they are likely to have better comprehension and ability to operate the PCA pump compared to a preschooler with intermittent alertness.
The client is being taught to select foods rich in potassium to help prevent digitalis toxicity. Which choice indicates the client understands dietary needs?
- A. Three apricots
- B. Medium banana
- C. Naval orange
- D. Baked potato
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A baked potato is high in potassium and helps prevent digitalis toxicity by maintaining adequate potassium levels. While choices A, B, and C all contain some potassium, a baked potato is a more concentrated source of potassium compared to three apricots, a medium banana, or a naval orange. Therefore, the client should choose a baked potato to better meet the dietary needs for preventing digitalis toxicity.