A client has received atropine sulfate preoperatively. The nurse monitors the client for which effect of the medication in the immediate postoperative period?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Urinary retention
- D. Excessive salivation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Atropine sulfate is an anticholinergic medication that causes tachycardia, drowsiness, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. The nurse should monitor the client for any of these effects in the immediate postoperative period. None of the other options relate to this medication.
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What action should the nurse take to assess the pharyngeal reflex on a child?
- A. Ask the client to swallow.
- B. Pull down on the lower eyelid.
- C. Shine a light toward the bridge of the nose.
- D. Stimulate the back of the throat with a tongue depressor.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The pharyngeal (gag) reflex is tested by touching the back of the throat with an object, such as a tongue depressor. A positive response to this reflex is considered normal. Asking the client to swallow assesses the swallowing reflex. To assess the palpebral conjunctiva, the nurse would pull down and evert the lower eyelid. The corneal light reflex is tested by shining a penlight toward the bridge of the nose at a distance of 12 to 15 inches (light reflection should be symmetrical in both corneas).
A client with a posterior wall bladder injury has had surgical repair and placement of a suprapubic catheter. What intervention should the nurse plan to implement to prevent complications associated with the use of this catheter?
- A. Monitor urine output every shift.
- B. Measure specific gravity once a shift.
- C. Encourage a high intake of oral fluids.
- D. Avoid kinking of the catheter tubing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A complication after surgical repair of the bladder is disruption of sutures caused by tension on them from urine buildup. The nurse prevents this from happening by ensuring that the catheter is able to drain freely. This involves basic catheter care, including keeping the tubing free from kinks, keeping the tubing below the level of the bladder, and monitoring the flow of urine frequently. Monitoring urine output every shift is insufficient to detect decreased flow from catheter kinking. Measurement of urine specific gravity and a high oral fluid intake do not prevent complications of bladder surgery.
The nurse is preparing to assess the respirations of several newborns in the nursery. The nurse performs the procedure and determines that the respiratory rate is normal if which finding is noted?
- A. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in a crying newborn
- B. A respiratory rate of 46 breaths per minute in an awake newborn
- C. A respiratory rate of 60 breaths per minute in a sleeping newborn
- D. A respiratory rate of 76 breaths per minute in a newly delivered newborn
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal respiratory rate varies from 30 to 50 breaths per minute when the infant is not crying. Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute to ensure an accurate measurement because the newborn infant may be a periodic breather. Observing and palpating respirations while the infant is quiet promotes accurate assessment.
A pregnant client reports that her last menstrual period was February 9, 2018. Using Nägele's rule, what will the nurse determine as the estimated date of birth?
- A. 7-Oct-18
- B. 16-Oct-18
- C. 7-Nov-18
- D. 16-Nov-18
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Accurate use of Nägele's rule requires that the woman has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. To calculate the estimated date of birth, the nurse would subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period, add 7 days, and then adjust the year as appropriate. First day of last menstrual period: February 9, 2018; subtract 3 months: November 9, 2017; add 7 days: November 16, 2017; and add 1 year, November 16, 2018.
The nurse is caring for a client receiving bolus feedings via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The nurse should place the client in which position to administer the feeding?
- A. Supine
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Trendelenburg's
- D. Lateral recumbent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clients are at high risk for aspiration during an NG tube feeding because the tube bypasses a protective mechanism, the gag reflex. The head of the bed is elevated 35 to 40 degrees (Semi-Fowler's) to prevent this complication by facilitating gastric emptying. The remaining options increase the risk of aspiration by blunting the effect of gravity on gastric emptying.
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