A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
- A. Respirations less than 12/min
- B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to respiratory depression (respirations less than 12/min), decreased urinary output (less than 25 mL/hr), and altered mental status (decreased level of consciousness). Respiratory depression occurs due to the impact of magnesium on the central nervous system. Decreased urinary output is a result of magnesium's effects on renal blood flow. Altered mental status is a common sign of magnesium toxicity affecting brain function. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. The other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they are all potential signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported.
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A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Joint pain
- B. Malaise
- C. Rash
- D. Tender lymph nodes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tender lymph nodes. In TORCH infections, which include Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus, tender lymph nodes are a common finding due to the body's immune response to the infection. Joint pain (choice A) is not typically associated with TORCH infections. Malaise (choice B) is a general feeling of discomfort and is not specific to TORCH infections. Rash (choice C) is also not a common finding in TORCH infections, making it an incorrect choice.
A parent is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse regarding caring for their newborn after a circumcision. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding.
- B. Inspect the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours.
- C. Avoid using baby wipes containing alcohol to cleanse the penis with each diaper change.
- D. Clean the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding. This instruction is crucial because it addresses the immediate post-circumcision care to control bleeding. Applying slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad helps to promote clotting and prevent excessive bleeding. This step is essential to ensure the newborn's safety and prevent complications.
Summary of other choices:
B: Inspecting the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours is important, but not as critical as addressing bleeding promptly.
C: Avoiding baby wipes containing alcohol is a good practice to prevent irritation, but it is not the most urgent instruction for immediate care.
D: Cleaning the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth is generally recommended for routine care, but in the immediate post-circumcision period, controlling bleeding takes precedence.
When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?
- A. Vaginal bleeding
- B. Swelling of the ankles
- C. Heartburn after eating
- D. Lightheadedness when lying on back
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vaginal bleeding. This is crucial to report promptly as it could indicate serious issues like placental abruption or miscarriage. Swelling of the ankles (B) is common in pregnancy but not typically an urgent concern. Heartburn (C) is common and can be managed with lifestyle changes. Lightheadedness when lying on the back (D) is likely due to inferior vena cava compression and can be relieved by changing position. Reporting vaginal bleeding is vital for timely intervention in pregnancy complications.
A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
- A. No alteration in menses
- B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
- C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
- D. Report of severe shoulder pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of severe shoulder pain. In a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. As the tube ruptures, there is internal bleeding which can irritate the diaphragm, causing referred pain to the shoulder. This phenomenon is known as Kehr's sign. The other choices are incorrect because with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy, there would typically be altered menses due to the pregnancy disruption, a transvaginal ultrasound would not show a fetus in the uterus, and blood progesterone levels would not be elevated.
A healthcare provider is discussing the differences between true labor and false labor with a group of expectant parents. Which of the following characteristics should the healthcare provider include when discussing true labor?
- A. Contractions become stronger with walking.
- B. Discomfort can be relieved with a back massage.
- C. Contractions become irregular with a change in activity.
- D. Discomfort is felt above the umbilicus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contractions become stronger with walking. This is because true labor is characterized by contractions that consistently increase in intensity and frequency, which is often enhanced by physical activity like walking. Contractions in false labor do not typically intensify with movement. Discomfort in true labor is usually not easily relieved by a back massage (B) and contractions in true labor remain regular even with changes in activity (C). Discomfort in true labor is typically felt in the lower abdomen and back, not above the umbilicus (D).
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