A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
- B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
- C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
- D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.
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A nurse is caring for a client who came to the emergency department reporting chest pain. The provider suspects a myocardial infarction. While waiting for the laboratory to report the client's troponin levels, the client asks what this blood test will show. The nurse should explain that troponin is
- A. an enzyme that indicates damage to brain, heart, and skeletal muscle tissues.
- B. a protein whose levels reflect the risk for coronary artery disease.
- C. a heart muscle protein that appears in the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart.
- D. a protein that helps transport oxygen throughout the body.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that troponin is a heart muscle protein that appears in the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart. Troponin is a specific marker for heart muscle damage, particularly seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Choice A is incorrect as troponin is not an enzyme that indicates damage to brain and skeletal muscle tissues. Choice B is incorrect as troponin is not a protein whose levels reflect the risk for coronary artery disease; it indicates heart muscle damage. Choice D is incorrect as troponin is not a protein that helps transport oxygen throughout the body; its presence in the bloodstream is specific to heart muscle damage.
A nurse in a community health center is assessing the results of the purified protein derivative (PPD) testing she performed to screen for tuberculosis (TB). She interprets which of the following results as positive for a 6-year-old client with no risk factors for TB?
- A. 4-mm erythema
- B. 5-mm induration
- C. 10-mm wheal
- D. 15-mm induration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 15-mm induration. In PPD testing, an induration (hardened raised area) of 15 mm or more is considered positive for TB in individuals with no risk factors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an erythema of 4 mm, induration of 5 mm, or wheal of 10 mm are not indicative of a positive TB test result in a low-risk individual. Therefore, the interpretation of a 15-mm induration would lead the nurse to consider the test positive for TB in this case.
In preparation for the discharge of a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD), the nurse should include which of the following instructions?
- A. Apply a heating pad on a low setting to help relieve leg pain.
- B. Adjust the thermostat so that the environment is warm.
- C. Wear antiembolic stockings during the day.
- D. Rest with the legs above heart level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Resting with the legs above heart level is important for clients with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) to promote better circulation and reduce leg pain. Applying a heating pad on a low setting can actually worsen symptoms by causing burns or increasing blood flow to the area, which is not recommended for PAD. While keeping the environment warm is generally beneficial, it is not a specific instruction for managing PAD. Antiembolic stockings are typically used for preventing blood clots in hospitalized patients and may not be directly related to managing PAD at home.
A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who came to be tested for tuberculosis (TB) after a close family member tested positive. The nurse should know that which of the following is a diagnostic tool used to screen for TB?
- A. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
- B. Mantoux skin test
- C. BCG vaccine
- D. Chest X-ray
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the tuberculin skin test, is a diagnostic tool used to screen for tuberculosis (TB). It involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the top layer of the skin on the forearm and then checking for a reaction within 48-72 hours. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to the TB bacteria. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is used to confirm TB diagnosis in individuals suspected of having active TB. The BCG vaccine is used to prevent severe forms of tuberculosis in high-risk individuals but is not a diagnostic tool. While a chest X-ray can show signs of active TB disease, it is not a primary diagnostic tool for screening purposes.
A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Tell the client to take an aspirin.
- B. Instruct the client to call 911.
- C. Have the client take another nitroglycerin tablet in 15 minutes.
- D. Advise the client to come to the office.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client reporting unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin tablet could be indicative of a serious cardiac event. Instructing the client to call 911 is the most appropriate response because immediate medical attention is necessary for chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Telling the client to take an aspirin (Choice A) may not address the urgency of the situation, and aspirin might not be appropriate depending on the client's medical history. Having the client take another nitroglycerin tablet (Choice C) without relief could lead to overdosage. Advising the client to come to the office (Choice D) is not the best course of action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate intervention.