Nokea
A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Examination to determine cervical status
- B. A magnesium sulfate infusion
- C. Initiation of pushing
- D. Preparation for cesarean birth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.
You may also like to solve these questions
A client in a prenatal clinic is being taught by a nurse in her second trimester with a new diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should limit my carbohydrates to 50% of caloric intake.
- B. I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week.
- C. I will take my glyburide daily with breakfast.
- D. I know I am at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'I will reduce my exercise schedule to 3 days a week,' indicates a need for further teaching. Regular exercise is beneficial in managing gestational diabetes and should not be reduced without proper guidance. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate understanding and appropriate actions in managing gestational diabetes.
A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?
- A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
- B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
- C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
- D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
- A. Hydrops fetalis
- B. Hypobilirubinemia
- C. Biliary atresia
- D. Transient clotting difficulties
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?
- A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned.'
- B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
- C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
- D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.
A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?
- A. Provide a sitz bath to a client who has a fourth-degree laceration and is 2 days postpartum.
- B. Observe an area of redness on the breast of a client who is 1 day postpartum.
- C. Monitor vital signs during admission of a client who has gestational hypertension.
- D. Change the perineal pad of a client who just transferred from labor and delivery.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Delegating the task of providing a sitz bath to a client with a fourth-degree laceration and who is 2 days postpartum to the assistive personnel (AP) is appropriate. This task involves assisting the client with personal hygiene and comfort measures that can be safely performed by the AP under the supervision and direction of the nurse. Tasks like observing redness on the breast, monitoring vital signs during admission for gestational hypertension, and changing perineal pads may require a higher level of assessment and nursing judgment, making them more appropriate for the nurse to perform.