A client in labor is experiencing late decelerations in fetal heart rate. What intervention should the nurse perform first?
- A. Reposition the client onto her left side.
- B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Increase IV fluid administration to improve perfusion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate fetal distress due to compromised placental perfusion. Repositioning the client onto her left side is the priority intervention as it can increase blood flow to the placenta, improving fetal oxygenation. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (choice B) can be the next step after repositioning if late decelerations persist. Emergency cesarean section (choice C) is not the initial action for late decelerations unless other interventions are ineffective. Increasing IV fluid administration (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for late decelerations; repositioning takes precedence to address the underlying cause.
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A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is prescribed intravenous antibiotics and oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Increased white blood cell count
- B. Crackles heard on lung auscultation
- C. Productive cough with green sputum
- D. Decreased respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client's breathing is becoming more stable, which suggests an improvement in their condition. Respiratory rate is a critical indicator of respiratory status and oxygenation. Increased white blood cell count (choice A) suggests ongoing infection, crackles on lung auscultation (choice B) indicate fluid in the lungs, and productive cough with green sputum (choice C) may indicate persistent infection or airway inflammation, which do not necessarily reflect improvement in pneumonia.
The nurse is administering a new medication to a client. What is the priority action before administering the drug?
- A. Verify the client's allergies
- B. Check the client's blood pressure
- C. Assess the client's pain level
- D. Provide client education on the medication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Verifying the client's allergies is the priority action before administering any medication. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to prevent potential allergic reactions, which can be severe and life-threatening. Checking the client's blood pressure, assessing pain levels, and providing education on the medication are important aspects of client care but verifying allergies is essential for ensuring the safety of the client.
A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- D. Serum albumin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.
A client was just taken off the ventilator after surgery and has a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?
- A. Allow the client to melt ice chips in the mouth
- B. Provide mints to freshen the breath
- C. Perform frequent oral care with a tooth sponge
- D. Swab the mouth with glycerin swabs
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure in this scenario. This helps maintain comfort and prevent dryness in clients with nasogastric tubes. Allowing the client to melt ice chips in the mouth may not address oral care needs effectively. Providing mints to freshen the breath is not the priority when the client needs oral care. Swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not be as effective as performing thorough oral care with a tooth sponge.
An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?
- A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
- B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
- C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
- D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.
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