Nokea
A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?
- A. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe
- B. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts
- C. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client
- D. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode that coordinates delivered breaths with the client's own respiratory efforts. This mode allows the client to initiate breaths, with the ventilator providing preset breaths at a controlled rate and volume. Option A is incorrect because in SIMV, the ventilator syncs with the client's respiratory efforts. Option C is incorrect as it does not accurately depict the way SIMV works. Option D is also incorrect as SIMV does not specifically provide breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations. Therefore, the correct answer is B, where the ventilator coordinates breath delivery with the client's breathing efforts.
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When admitting a 64-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis, the healthcare provider should specifically inquire about a history of
- A. diabetes mellitus.
- B. high-protein diet.
- C. cigarette smoking.
- D. alcohol consumption.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In patients with acute pancreatitis, alcohol consumption is a significant risk factor and one of the most common causes in the United States. It is crucial to assess alcohol intake as it plays a key role in the development of pancreatitis. While cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, and high-protein diets can contribute to various health issues, they are not directly associated with the development of acute pancreatitis.
Why is it important to genotype HCV before initiating drug therapy?
- A. Side effects of nucleotide analogs
- B. Measures for improving the appetite
- C. Ways to increase activity and exercise
- D. Administering alpha-interferon (Intron A)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Genotyping of HCV plays a crucial role in managing treatment as it helps determine the most effective therapy for the specific viral strain. It allows healthcare providers to personalize treatment regimens and predict response rates. The statement about acute HCV infection converting to chronic state is accurate, highlighting the need for appropriate management. Immune globulin and vaccines are not available for HCV, and Ribavirin is commonly used for chronic HCV infection. Improving appetite is essential in liver health as adequate nutritional intake supports hepatocyte regeneration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the specific importance of genotyping in HCV treatment or the significance of appetite improvement in liver function.
A child has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?
- A. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity.
- B. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis.
- C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.
- D. Physical activity should be minimized.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs are important as a first-line treatment and typically require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized. Choice A is incorrect as early treatment can improve outcomes and prevent joint deformities. Choice B is incorrect as juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not necessarily progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity should be encouraged in children with arthritis to maintain joint mobility and overall health.
To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
- A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
- B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
- C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.
A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
- A. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
- B. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
- C. The patient presents as severely depressed
- D. The patient has a rash and pruritus on his arms and legs
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.