Nokea
A client in the transition phase of labor reports a pain level of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to use effleurage.
- B. Apply counterpressure to the client's sacrum.
- C. Assist the client with patterned-paced breathing.
- D. Teach the client the technique of biofeedback.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During the transition phase of labor, a client may experience intense back pain due to the pressure of the baby descending. Applying counterpressure to the client's sacrum can help alleviate this discomfort. Effleurage is a light stroking massage technique that may not provide adequate relief for intense back pain. Patterned-paced breathing is beneficial for managing contractions but may not directly address back pain. Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain awareness and control of certain physiological functions, but it may not be the most appropriate intervention for acute labor pain.
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Which of the following illnesses causes degeneration of the central nervous system?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Klinefelter syndrome
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tay-Sachs disease is a genetic disorder that causes a progressive degeneration of the central nervous system, particularly in infants. Choice B, Cystic fibrosis, is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs and digestive system, not the central nervous system. Choices C and D, Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome, are chromosomal disorders that do not directly involve degeneration of the central nervous system.
Which of the following statements is true of mutations?
- A. Mutations can only occur by chance.
- B. Mutations produce sperm and ova cells.
- C. Mutations occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
- D. Mutations help adenine combine with guanine to form the single spiral structure of DNA.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mutations can occur due to environmental influences such as radiation, chemicals, or other external factors, leading to changes in the DNA sequence. Choice A is incorrect because mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication, not solely by chance. Choice B is incorrect as mutations affect the DNA sequence itself, not the production of specific cells. Choice D is incorrect because mutations involve changes in the DNA sequence and do not specifically involve the formation of the DNA structure.
A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
- A. Group B strep culture
- B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
- C. Rubella titer
- D. Blood type and Rh
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.
Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?
- A. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia
- B. Congenital anomalies in the fetus
- C. Hydramnios
- D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.
In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks' gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:
- A. Gravida 2, para 1.
- B. Gravida 3, para 3.
- C. Gravida 4, para 2.
- D. Gravida 5, para 4.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.