Nokea
A client is about to have a TENS unit attached for pain relief. Which of the following actions is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations.
- B. Connect the TENS unit before the client goes to bed for the night.
- C. Inform the client that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days.
- D. After treatment, inform the client that he may not use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When attaching a TENS unit for pain relief, it is essential to inform the client that he may experience tingling sensations. This is a common sensation experienced when using a TENS unit, but it should not cause muscle twitching. The therapeutic effects of a TENS unit usually last between 3 to 5 days. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to connect the TENS unit before bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as stating that the TENS unit may have pain-reducing effects for 10 to 15 days is inaccurate, as the effects typically last 3 to 5 days. Choice D is incorrect because there is no guideline suggesting that the client cannot use a TENS unit again for at least 2 weeks after treatment.
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You are working the 8 am to 4 pm shift. You begin to vomit at 3 pm and you do not think that you are able to continue working. You decide to immediately go home without notifying your RN supervisor. You have ________________.
- A. enough sick time, so this is not a problem.
- B. finished all your work, so this is not a problem.
- C. seriously abandoned the patients.
- D. seriously abused and neglected the patients.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patient abandonment is a serious violation that can lead to disciplinary action and immediate termination of employment. It is defined as leaving patients without proper consent from the supervisor. In this scenario, leaving work without notifying the RN supervisor and potentially leaving patients unattended is considered patient abandonment, as it compromises patient safety and care. Choices A and B are incorrect because having sick time or finishing work does not justify leaving without proper protocol. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not indicate abuse or neglect towards the patients.
Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?
- A. Nephrotoxic medications
- B. Pericardial tamponade
- C. Neurogenic bladder
- D. Polycystic kidney disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.
Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates a possible nutritional deficiency?
- A. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen
- B. Presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue
- C. Straight arms and legs
- D. Pale conjunctiva
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A client with poor nutritional intake may have pale mucous membranes surrounding the eye, or the conjunctiva. This area should normally be pink, indicating good circulation and a lack of irritation or dryness. Improper nutrition can manifest as numerous signs in the body, including bowed legs, pale mucous membranes, a smooth or beefy tongue, and poor muscle tone. Subcutaneous fat at the waist and abdomen is not a sign of nutritional deficiency but rather of excess fat deposition. The presence of papillae on the surface of the tongue is normal and not indicative of a nutritional deficiency. Straight arms and legs are also typical anatomical features and not specifically related to nutritional deficiencies.
When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.
- A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
- B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
- C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
- D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.
You are ready to give your resident a complete bed bath. The temperature of this bath water should be which of the following?
- A. Cooler than a tub bath.
- B. Hotter than a tub bath.
- C. About 106 degrees.
- D. Over 120 degrees.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct temperature for a bed bath water should be about 106 degrees. This temperature is considered safe and comfortable for residents. Using a bath thermometer is essential to ensure the water is not too hot, as hot water can cause burns. On the other hand, water that is too cool can lead to discomfort, shivering, and chilling. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because cooler water may cause discomfort and shivering, hotter water can lead to burns, and water over 120 degrees is considered too hot and risky for a resident's skin.