A client is admitted to the hospital with a suspected diagnosis of Graves' disease. On assessment, which manifestation related to the client's menstrual cycle should the nurse expect the client to report?
- A. Amenorrhea
- B. Menorrhagia
- C. Metrorrhagia
- D. Dysmenorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amenorrhea or a decreased menstrual flow is common in the client with Graves' disease. Menorrhagia, metrorrhagia, and dysmenorrhea are also disorders related to the female reproductive system; however, they do not manifest in the presence of Graves' disease.
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The nurse is performing a prenatal examination on a client in the third trimester. The nurse begins an abdominal examination that includes Leopold maneuvers. What information should the nurse be able to determine after performing the assessment's first maneuver?
- A. Fetal descent
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Fetal lie and presentation
- D. Strength of uterine contractions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first maneuver, the fundal grip, determines the contents (size, consistency, shape, and mobility) of the fundus (either the fetal head or breech) and thereby the fetal lie. Fetal descent is determined with the fourth maneuver. Placenta previa is diagnosed by ultrasound and not by palpation. Leopold maneuvers are not performed during a contraction.
A client prescribed prazosin hydrochloride asks the nurse why the first dose must be taken at bedtime. Which response by the nurse is based on the understanding of the first dose use of prazosin hydrochloride?
- A. Treatment with prazosin hydrochloride results in drowsiness.
- B. Treatment with prazosin hydrochloride can cause dependent edema.
- C. Prazosin hydrochloride should be taken when the stomach is empty.
- D. Treatment with prazosin hydrochloride can cause dizziness or possible syncope.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prazosin is an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent. 'First-dose hypotensive reaction' may occur during early therapy, which is characterized by dizziness, lightheadedness, and possible loss of consciousness. The occurrence of these effects is better tolerated if the client is in bed. This also can occur when the dosage is increased. This effect usually disappears with continued use or the dosage is decreased.
The nurse is caring for a client scheduled to undergo a renal biopsy. To minimize the risk of postprocedure complications, the nurse reports which laboratory results to the primary health care provider before the procedure?
- A. Prothrombin time: 15 seconds
- B. Potassium: 3.8 mEq/L (3.8 mmol/L)
- C. Serum creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL (106 mcmol/L)
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 18 mg/dL (6.48 mmol/L)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Postprocedure hemorrhage is a complication after renal biopsy. Because of this, prothrombin time is assessed before the procedure. The normal prothrombin time range is 11 to 12.5 seconds. The nurse ensures that these results are available and reports abnormalities promptly. Options 2, 3, and 4 identify normal values. The normal potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L (3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L); the normal serum creatinine is 0.5 to 1.2 mg/dL (44 to 106 mcmol/L); and the normal BUN is 10-20 mg/dL (3.6-7.1 mmol/L).
A client is receiving desmopressin intranasally. Which assessment parameters should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Temperature
- C. Apical heart rate
- D. Pupillary response
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Desmopressin is an analog of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). It is used in the management of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client's fluid balance to determine the effectiveness of the medication. Fluid status can be evaluated by noting intake and urine output, daily weight, and the presence of edema. The measurements in options 2, 3, and 4 are not related to this medication.
Which observation by the nurse indicates a need to suction a client with an endotracheal (ET) tube attached to a mechanical ventilator? Select all that apply.
- A. Audible crackles
- B. Client notably restless
- C. Visible mucus bubbling in the ET tube
- D. Apical pulse rate of 72 beats per minute
- E. Low peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
- F. High alarm pressures identified by the ventilator
Correct Answer: A,B,C,F
Rationale: Indications for suctioning include visible mucus bubbling in the ET tube, wet respirations, restlessness, rhonchi or crackles on auscultation of the lungs, increased pulse and respiratory rates, and increased peak inspiratory pressures on the ventilator and high-pressure alarms on the ventilator. A low peak inspiratory pressure indicates a leak in the mechanical ventilation system.