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A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer regular insulin IV.
- B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
- C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
- D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.
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After insertion of the indwelling catheter, how should the nurse position the drainage container?
- A. With the drainage tubing taut to maintain maximum suction on the urinary bladder.
- B. Lower than the bladder to maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder.
- C. At the head of the bed for easy and accurate measurement of urine.
- D. Beside the patient in their bed to avoid embarrassment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for the drainage container after inserting an indwelling catheter is to have it placed lower than the bladder. This positioning helps maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder, preventing backflow and ensuring proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because having the drainage tubing taut does not promote proper urine flow and may cause kinking. Choice C is incorrect as placing the container at the head of the bed does not affect drainage and is not necessary for accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the positioning of the drainage container should prioritize proper drainage and care over potential embarrassment.
During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol.
- B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
- C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
- D. My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Limiting saturated fat from animal food sources to no more than 4 ounces per week is an important diet modification for lowering cholesterol. To be effective in reducing cholesterol, the client should exercise 30 minutes per day, or at least 4 to 6 times per week. Red meat and all proteins do not need to be eliminated to lower cholesterol, but should be restricted to lean cuts of red meat and smaller portions. The low density lipoproteins need to decrease rather than increase.
While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
- B. Encourage her to keep the joint uncovered to maintain warmth.
- C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
- D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The wife is correctly performing the passive range-of-motion exercises by holding the arm above and below the elbow. The nurse should acknowledge this correct technique (A). It is essential to keep the joint uncovered (B) during exercises, while ensuring the rest of the body remains covered for warmth and privacy. Choices (C) and (D) do not provide optimal support to the joint for effective movement.
How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.