Nokea
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Dependent edema.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Nocturia.
- D. Orthopnea.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.
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After insertion of the indwelling catheter, how should the nurse position the drainage container?
- A. With the drainage tubing taut to maintain maximum suction on the urinary bladder.
- B. Lower than the bladder to maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder.
- C. At the head of the bed for easy and accurate measurement of urine.
- D. Beside the patient in their bed to avoid embarrassment.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct position for the drainage container after inserting an indwelling catheter is to have it placed lower than the bladder. This positioning helps maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder, preventing backflow and ensuring proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because having the drainage tubing taut does not promote proper urine flow and may cause kinking. Choice C is incorrect as placing the container at the head of the bed does not affect drainage and is not necessary for accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the positioning of the drainage container should prioritize proper drainage and care over potential embarrassment.
When performing sterile wound care in the acute care setting, the nurse obtains a bottle of normal saline from the bedside table that is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date. Which is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Use the normal saline solution once more and then discard.
- B. Obtain a new sterile syringe to draw up the labeled saline solution.
- C. Use the saline solution and then relabel the bottle with the current date.
- D. Discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When performing sterile wound care, it is essential to use only newly opened and unexpired solutions to maintain sterility and prevent infections. The normal saline solution obtained by the nurse is labeled 'opened' and dated 48 hours prior to the current date, making it no longer considered sterile. The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discard the saline solution and obtain a new unopened bottle to ensure the safety and effectiveness of wound care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reusing an already opened and outdated solution or attempting to relabel it with a current date can compromise patient safety and increase the risk of infection.
After abdominal surgery, an adult is now alert and oriented. What position is most appropriate for the client?
- A. Semi-Fowler's
- B. Prone
- C. Supine
- D. Sim's
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client following abdominal surgery is Semi-Fowler's. This position promotes greater thoracic expansion and reduces pressure on the suture line, aiding in respiratory function and preventing strain on the incision site. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Prone position (Choice B) would not be suitable after abdominal surgery as it can put pressure on the abdomen. Supine position (Choice C) may cause discomfort and strain on the incision area. Sim's position (Choice D) is primarily used for rectal exams and enemas, which are unrelated to the needs post-abdominal surgery.
A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is admitted with chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing chest pain, the priority intervention for the nurse to implement first is to apply oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygenation is crucial to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and the heart. This intervention takes precedence over administering sublingual nitroglycerin, obtaining an ECG, or initiating continuous cardiac monitoring. While these interventions are important, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the initial priority in the management of a client with chest pain.
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Bounding pulse
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Oliguria
- D. Dry mucous membranes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.