Nokea
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:
- A. Pulmonary embolectomy
- B. Vena caval interruption
- C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
- D. Thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse walks into a client's room to find the nursing assistant yelling, 'Sit back down or I won't help you eat, and then you will starve!' This type of behavior is known as:
- A. Psychological abuse
- B. Abandonment
- C. Material exploitation
- D. Physical abuse
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psychological abuse. This behavior is classified as psychological abuse, which harms another person through words or threats. The nursing assistant's actions of yelling, making threats, and using food as a form of control fall under psychological abuse. Abandonment (choice B) refers to deserting or leaving a client without care, which is not the case in the scenario. Material exploitation (choice C) involves taking advantage of a person's assets or resources for personal gain, which is not evident here. Physical abuse (choice D) involves causing physical harm, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Therefore, the most appropriate classification for the behavior described in the scenario is psychological abuse.
A patient diagnosed with a mild anxiety disorder has been referred to treatment in a community mental health center. Treatment most likely provided by the center includes
- A. Medical management of symptoms
- B. Daily psychotherapy
- C. Constant staff supervision
- D. Psychological stabilization
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Community mental health centers focus on rehabilitation, vocational needs, education, and socialization, as well as on the management of symptoms and medication. For a patient with a mild anxiety disorder, the primary focus would be on providing medical management of symptoms, such as prescribing appropriate medications and monitoring their effectiveness. Daily psychotherapy is not typically provided in community mental health centers for mild cases, as it may not be necessary. Constant staff supervision and psychological stabilization are more suited for patients requiring a higher level of care or in acute settings where continuous monitoring and stabilization are essential.
A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
- B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
- C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
- D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.
The nurse is assessing an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Unequal leg length
- B. Limited adduction
- C. Diminished femoral pulses
- D. Symmetrical gluteal folds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Unequal leg length.' Shortening of a leg is a common sign of developmental dysplasia of the hip. Limited adduction (Choice B) may be present but is less specific to developmental dysplasia of the hip. Diminished femoral pulses (Choice C) are not typically associated with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Symmetrical gluteal folds (Choice D) are a normal finding and would not be expected in a patient with developmental dysplasia of the hip.
A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?
- A. Give 2 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- B. Give 20 mg of morphine sulfate to the client
- C. Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
- D. Contact the physician to rewrite the order
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.