Nokea
A client is being taught about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for colorectal cancer screening. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Your provider will use a stool sample obtained during a digital rectal examination to perform the test.
- B. Your provider will recommend a stimulant laxative before the test to empty the bowel.
- C. You should start annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at the age of 40.
- D. You should avoid corticosteroids before the test.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should advise the client to avoid corticosteroids, anti-inflammatory medications, and vitamin C before fecal occult blood testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect as stool samples for FOBT are usually collected using a kit at home. Choice B is incorrect because stimulant laxatives are not typically used before FOBT. Choice C is incorrect as guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening at the age of 50, not 40.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse the need for immediate intervention?
- A. Axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F)
- B. Apical pulse 100/min
- C. Respiratory rate 30/min
- D. Blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should prioritize airway and breathing in a client with a traumatic brain injury. An increased respiratory rate may indicate CO2 retention, which could lead to increased intracranial pressure. Choice A, axillary temperature 37.2°C (99°F), is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Choice B, apical pulse 100/min, is slightly elevated but not as critical as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D, blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg, is also within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention compared to the respiratory rate.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat three large meals daily
- B. Consume high-calorie foods
- C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
- D. Drink fluids during meal time
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.
A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?
- A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?
- A. Contact precautions
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Protective environment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client who has TB under airborne precautions to prevent the spread of microbes. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases spread by larger droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for immunocompromised clients to protect them from environmental pathogens.