Nokea
A client is being treated for inhalational anthrax following bioterrorism exposure. Which of the following medications should NOT be expected as a common treatment for anthrax?
- A. Ciprofloxacin
- B. Doxycycline
- C. Amoxicillin
- D. Penicillin G
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Penicillin G. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis, which is susceptible to ciprofloxacin and doxycycline. Penicillin and amoxicillin are not recommended due to the potential for B. anthracis to produce beta-lactamase, which can make the bacteria resistant to penicillin-based medications. Penicillin G is not effective in treating anthrax and should not be expected as a common treatment option.
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Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy?
- A. Because their defense mechanisms are less efficient.
- B. Because they are prone to fluid overload.
- C. Because they are prone to increased renal efficiency.
- D. Because they have inadequate intake of dietary fiber.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are more susceptible to fluid overload due to decreased kidney function and other physiological changes.
Which assessment tools can be used to assess the cardiac system (select all that apply)?
- A. Watch
- B. Stethoscope
- C. Ophthalmoscope
- D. Percussion hammer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answers are 'Watch,' 'Stethoscope,' 'Percussion hammer,' and 'Blood pressure cuff.' These tools aid in evaluating heart rate, rhythm, sounds, and vascular status.
A 25-year-old client is admitted for a tonsillectomy and informs the nurse of having had episodes of muscle cramps, weakness, and an unexplained temperature elevation. Many years ago, the client's father died shortly after surgery subsequent to developing a high fever. The surgeon has ordered dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) prophylactically prior to the tonsillectomy to reduce the risk of:
- A. a postoperative infection.
- B. malignant hyperthermia.
- C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
- D. a postoperative fever.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect on a postoperative infection. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is indicated prophylactically for clients with malignant hyperthermia or with a family history of the disorder. The mortality rate for malignant hyperthermia is high. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an exercise-induced muscle pain and spasm and is not related to malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect on a postoperative fever.
What is the main risk factor for developing presbycusis?
- A. Age
- B. Noise exposure
- C. Genetics
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Age is the primary risk factor for presbycusis, a form of age-related hearing loss.
What is the purpose and advantage of methadone maintenance therapy?
- A. Increased alertness
- B. Lower immune response
- C. Faster metabolism
- D. Enhanced digestion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is the most appropriate response based on physiological and medical principles.