Nokea
A client is considering the withdrawal method. Which of the following statements by the nurse is accurate?
- A. The withdrawal method is highly effective with perfect use.
- B. The withdrawal method has a high failure rate and does not protect against STIs.
- C. The withdrawal method requires a prescription.
- D. The withdrawal method is more effective than oral contraceptives.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The withdrawal method has a high failure rate due to pre-ejaculate and timing issues and does not protect against STIs. It does not require a prescription and is less effective than oral contraceptives.
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A nurse is teaching a client about the use of condoms for contraception. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. Condoms must be stored in a hot, humid environment.
- B. Condoms can be reused if washed thoroughly.
- C. Condoms provide some protection against STIs.
- D. Condoms are 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Condoms provide some protection against sexually transmitted infections, which is a key benefit. They should be stored in a cool, dry place, cannot be reused, and are not 100% effective in preventing pregnancy.
A primigravid client at 37 weeks' gestation has been hospitalized for several days with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. While caring for the client, the nurse observes that the client is beginning to have a seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse do first?
- A. Pad the side rails of the client's bed.
- B. Turn the client to the right side.
- C. Insert a padded tongue blade into the client's mouth.
- D. Call for immediate assistance in the client's room.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A seizure in pregnancy-induced hypertension (eclampsia) is a medical emergency. Calling for immediate assistance ensures rapid intervention (e.g., magnesium sulfate). Padding rails, repositioning, or inserting a tongue blade (which is outdated) are secondary.
The labor and delivery unit is short-staffed, and the charge nurse must prioritize assignments. Which client should the registered nurse personally assess first?
- A. A primigravida at 4 cm dilation requesting pain relief.
- B. A multigravida at 8 cm dilation with a history of rapid labors.
- C. A primigravida with stable vital signs post-epidural.
- D. A multigravida at 6 cm dilation with a reassuring fetal monitor.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A multigravida at 8 cm dilation with a history of rapid labors is at risk for precipitous delivery, requiring immediate RN assessment to prepare for birth. Other clients are less urgent, as they are earlier in labor or stable.
A laboring client smiles pleasantly at the nurse when asked simple questions. The client speaks no English and the interpreter is busy with an emergency situation. At her last vaginal examination, the client was 5 cm dilated, 100% effaced, and at 0 station. While working with this client, which of the following responses indicates that the client may be approaching delivery?
- A. The fetal monitor strip shows late decelerations.
- B. The client begins to speak to her family in her native language.
- C. The fetal monitor strip shows early decelerations.
- D. The client's facial expressions become animated.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Animated facial expressions (e.g., grimacing, distress) may indicate transition or second-stage labor, suggesting imminent delivery. Late decelerations indicate fetal distress, speaking to family is nonspecific, and early decelerations are normal.
A primiparous client asks the nurse about resuming exercise after vaginal delivery. The nurse should advise the client to start low-impact exercises:
- A. Immediately after discharge.
- B. After 2 weeks postpartum.
- C. After 6 weeks postpartum.
- D. When lochia has completely stopped.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Low-impact exercises are generally safe after 6 weeks, allowing time for healing and recovery.